Welcome to your Technical Exam
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Elevator balance tabs position
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
Where are the Logo lights installed?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
How can VNAV be terminated?
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
How many slats are located on each wing?
Which statement is correct:
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
Which statement is correct:
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?
