Route to command

Welcome to your Route to command - Exam

The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?

300/125/125

550/550/550

800/550/550

550/125/75

When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?

When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 20%

When N2 reaches 20% (only requirement)

When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)

When N2 reaches 25% (only requirement)

You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?

5nm

FAF

4nm but no later than 3.5nm

6nm

Correct Mark 1 out of 1 Not flaggedFlag question Question text When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?

There is no minimums call from the EGPWS

When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

When minimums on both sides differ

When the FO has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever;

Icing conditions exist.

Landing in IMC conditions only.

The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

The temperature is below ISA.

The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?

5kts

20kts

25kts

10kts

Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?

F/O: ‘Passing ___radio, flare armed’

F/O, ‘___radio, flare armed’

Captain, ‘Passing ___radio’

Captain, ‘Passing ___feet, flare armed’

A double briefing does not have to contain the following:

Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected

Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if not visual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up)

The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’

The autobrake setting to use

When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”

2nm before the nominated descent point

2nm before the FAF, always

2nm before the IAF

2nm before the OM

Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?

Low drag approaches are prohibited on straight in visual approaches

Low drag approaches are approved for single engine operations

The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm

Low drag approaches are not approved for non-precision approaches

How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck immediately' over the PA.

He will press the attendant call button once and unlock the door.

Correct He will press the attendant call button three times.

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck', over the PA.

The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?

FAF

5NM

500ft

1000ft

There is a small amount (1.5mm) of CSFF (Cold Soaked Fuel Frost) on top of the wing behind the engine mount. The CSFF is not completely contained within the black painted lines. Which statement is correct?

This is not acceptable for takeoff, remove before departure

Wait and allow for the CSFF to melt

This is acceptable, provided it is not significantly over the black painted lines

This is acceptable for departure

When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?

0.81

0.8

0.79

0.78

Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’...

as the engine cuts back

after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’

as the Start Switch moves to the OFF position

once N2 is observed to pass 46% N1

Which of the following is true when setting the FMC for a visual approach if no existing procedure exists?

A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold, no hard altitude is required.

A pilot should generate an RX point at least 5.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude

A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold and make this a hard altitude.

A pilot should generate an RX point at least 6.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude.

If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?

By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)

By using hot water

By using cold water

By using any de-icing fluids

In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.

Only when below FL100

The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls 'SET' while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls 'XXX CHECKED'.

Only below MSA

Only during final approach phase

According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?

Is located on the back side of the winter operations handy dandy.

The FO reads the checklist and completes the actions.

The CPT reads the checklist.

If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.

Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:

HDG SEL provides a bank angle limiting function to avoid exceeding thrust limits during turns.

You should never fly more than 10 knots above the lower amber band.

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.

ISA deviation has no effect on altitude capability.

What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?

At 400ft

At 158ft or E/D

At 1000ft

At MDA

The minimum OIL QTY for dispatch is?

14 QTS

15 LITRES

13 QTS

12 LITRES

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is

Done during the pre-flight for the first flight only by the PF

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is only done by the Captain

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF

Done during the pre-flight for the first flight only by the Captain

Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure?

It is used by ATC for routing you away from high terrain in the event of an engine failure after take-off.

It is not required to be completed if on a SID.

It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.

It is used to quickly return for a landing at the airfield of departure.

Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:

Category A airfields have no night operation capability.

Category A is the most restrictive category and includes specific operational requirements.

Category B always have an ILS approach.

Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.

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Route to command – Exam

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