Welcome to your Technical Exam
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
Elevator balance tabs position
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
How many slats are located on each wing?
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Which statement is correct:
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
How can VNAV be terminated?
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
Which statement is correct:
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
Where are the Logo lights installed?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
