Welcome to your Technical Exam
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
How many slats are located on each wing?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
Which statement is correct:
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Elevator balance tabs position
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
How can VNAV be terminated?
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
Which statement is correct:
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Where are the Logo lights installed?
