Welcome to your Technical Exam
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
How many slats are located on each wing?
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
Which statement is correct:
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
How can VNAV be terminated?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
Elevator balance tabs position
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
Where are the Logo lights installed?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
Which statement is correct:
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
