SOPs quiz

Welcome to your SOPs

During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and crossfeed selector be?

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector OPEN

Right centre tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector CLOSED

Left center tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector OPEN

Right centre tank fuel pump On and crossfeed selector OPEN

When is the transponder mode selector set '2000, then STBY', during the taxi in procedure?

After the airplane has come to a complete stop.

After vacating the runway.

When requested by the captain.

When the marshaller is in sight.

What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during climb?

LVL CHG unless FMC Target Speed will provide better climb performance.

VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight Level, the sustained climb rate is in excess of 3000ft, 2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be selected.

LVL CHG below FL100, VNAV above FL100.

VNAV below FL100, LVL CHG above FL100

During the before taxi procedure in icing conditions, engine anti-ice is selected ON. The COWL VALVE OPEN light on engine no. 1 illuminates bright, and stays illuminated bright. Choose one of the following actions.

Engine anti-ice is not available on the affected engine, position the switch to OFF and resume normal operations.

Shut down the engine and contact maintrol.

Position the APU BLEED air switch to OFF and increase thrust slightly, up to a maximum of 30 % N1.

This is normal, and indicates that the cowl valve is fully open.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start supplementary procedure?

This considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start. This is to improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

This considers one Pack switch position set to AUTO if there is a delay after both engines start before the air system is re-configured.

This considers the Isolation valve switch position set to CLOSE to allow ONE Pack Switch to be selected to HIGH mode. This is to improve air quality when the cabin is very warm.

This considers the Isolation valve switch position set to CLOSE to allow BOTH Pack Switch to be selected to HIGH mode. This is to improve air quality when the cabin is very warm.

What considerations should be evaluated before attempting to re-engage the A/P?

Assure the aircraft is above the MSA and the A/T is OFF.

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the control column/wheel.

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and the A/T is ON.

Correct Assure the aircraft is in level flight and speed is above 220 kts.

The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when:

Performing the 10 checks

Passing FL150

At 15 minutes to landing

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

During the post flight procedures who annunciates "Doors to manual and crosscheck"?

CPT

When can flight crew inhibit RAAS?

Airline policy (airfield brief) prohibits the RAAS for the intended airport or the runway.

All of the other answers are correct

NOTAM applies to the intended runway.

Airport is not in the GPWS database.

With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

the selection of FLAPS UP

3000ft agl

Passing FL100

the AFTER TAKE-OFF checklist

What should the pressurisation FLT ALT window be set to during the Preflight procedure?

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.

Optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)

LIDO final planned level

Current step climb level corresponding with MCP and FMC

To determine that actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on APPROACH REF Page

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on PROGRESS Page 3

Use the tower reported wind

Use the wind shown on the ND

What considerations should be evaluated before attempting to re-engage the A/P?

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and the A/T is ON.

Assure the aircraft is above the MSA and the A/T is OFF.

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the control column/wheel.

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and speed is above 220 kts.

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than 50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will

initiate an early descent at 1000ft/min until capturing the VNAV path, if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint.

The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be checked as part of the after start scan?

false

true

What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with flaps extended on departure?

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged above MFRA.

At any time when he climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude.

Never

Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to maintain speed 280kts for separation:

You call 'unable' as the maximum speed below FL100 is 250kts with no exceptions

Crews may increase speed above 250kts below FL100 at their own discretion

This is not possible because no separation is provided in class C airspace

You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from ATC

During an dual channel Go-Around who will select the appropriate roll mode on the MCP?

CPT

What is the engine parameter value at which the start lever should be moved to idle detent during engine in flight restart?

Positive N1

11% N2

Positive N2

25% N2

Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1 departure.

At 3000 ft QNH PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 1000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 1000 ft AGL PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 1000 RA PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

4.2 NM ring from the opposite runway.

4.2 NM ring from the landing runway.

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning stage that is within a NFZ?

A techlog entry must be made.

Verbally tell the engineer at the next suitable location.

No action required.

Visually inspect the engines and if nothing found, no action required.

Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU?

STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output

STAB TRIM, MFRA, V SPEEDS, send output

V SPEEDS, MFRA, STAB TRIM, send output

V SPEEDS, send output, MFRA, STAB TRIM, before start checklist to the line

The "Landing Gate" requires the aircraft to be fully stabilised:

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (IMC) (all approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (VMC & IMC) (all approaches)

What is the three step escalation process for protecting minimum reserve fuel?

Request EAT – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – Request EAT – MAYDAY FUEL call

Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800?

416 nm

396 nm

none of the above

427 nm

At the start of your duty, where should you check the current versions of software that should be installed on your EFB?

Company NOTAM on the EFL.

EFB section on Docunet

Displayed on the "Ryanair Apps" application

What is considered a volcanic ash low contamination area?

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 3mg/m3

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

PF response to RAAS "On Runway __" (cleared for take-off) is:

"Timing"

"___/___ Timing"

"Checked"

"Start time"

If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what should crews do?

Contact Operations

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

Delete the OPT application and re-install it.

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

When blanking the lower DU, during the Before Taxi Procedure.

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.

At Top of Climb.

There is no need to check the Hydraulic Pressures, it's an engineering function.

After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed?

What shoud be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than 5 degrees ?

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 400 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 160 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 300 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 185 m.

Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence penetration procedures?

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set N1 to fly and maintain M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, set speed M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise open the speed window and adjust thr speed to maintain an equal position between VMO/MMO and the top of the minimum maneuver speed.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the FMC CRUISE page.

What is considered a volcanic ash high contamination area?

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Equal to or greater than 4mg/m3, or areas of contaminated airspace where no ash concentration guidance is available.

Equal to or greater than 4mg/m3 only.

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that:

The aircraft will land with less than final reserve fuel

The aircraft has sufficient fuel to hold for a further 30 minutes before commencing an approach

All planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel

Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto type shall not conduct the landing when specific weather conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate description.

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kts during normal operations regardless of runway limitations and conditions

When the crosswind is in excess of 22kts during normal operations with suitable runway limitations and conditions

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3rds limiting value, whichever is lower

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3rds limiting value, whichever is greater

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

Should be selected descending through MSA with the purpose of monitoring cross track error, vertical deviation and ANP/RNP.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring only ANP/RNP.

Should be selected on completion of the approach checks with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

No Ryanair revenue flight shall be planned to arrive at destination with less than

Final Reserve Fuel

1800Kg of fuel

Final Reserve Fuel + 500Kg

936Kg of fuel

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure?

There is no need to check the area behind the aircraft is clear as the anti-collision light is on.

The ground crew must be aware and clear you for a crossbleed start before or during the pushback, there is no need to notify ATC

When advancing the thrust lever to increase the duct pressure, you may need to provide additional thrust if you have decided to keep the PACK switches on.

Ryanair will not plan or intentionally conduct operations in areas known to contain visible or discernible Volcanic Ash (VA) or areas where ash concentrations have been measured above which level?

3mg/m3

6mg/m3

4mg/m3

2mg/m3

Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash?

Yes

Who submits the EFL flight information at the end of each sector?

CPT

What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after take-off in a no engine bleed T/O configuration?

Obstacle clearance height

1200ft AAL

MDH

MFRA

Which statement is correct regarding the sequence of actions when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling procedure?

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, sets the MAA in the MCP altitude and calls ‘XXX FEET SET’.

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call ‘CHECKED’

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PM shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET AND CHECKED’

The PM verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’.

In the event of Docunet being unavailable, where can flight manuals be downloaded to?

Boeing OPT

Safety TV

Flight Dispatch Folder application

They are always available in iBooks without needing to be downloaded.

On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up to?

Select autobrake selector to OFF

Selecting the speedbrake lever to the up position

Selecting reverse thrust

Selecting thrust levers to idle

During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST item to be checked in the Techlog?

Verify the door code.

It is the Captain's responsibility to check the techlog.

Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.

During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the correct action after the Emergency Access Code is entered and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:

Flight Deck Access System switch to OFF

Flight deck door lock selector to DENY

Flight deck door lock selector to UNLKD

Flight Deck Access System switch to NORM

What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights during the pre-flight procedure?

Illuminated (amber)

Extinguished

Illuminated bright (blue)

When do you select the transponder to ALT OFF during engine start / push?

The F/O selects the transponder to TA RA to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

The CPT selects the transponder to ALT OFF to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

The F/O selects the transponder to ALT OFF to as part of the below the line flow.

The F/O selects the transponder to ALT OFF to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

What is the three step escalation process for protecting minimum reserve fuel?

Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – Request EAT – MAYDAY FUEL call

Request EAT – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to during the preflight procedures?

ATT

NAV

ALIGN

OFF

When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision approach the crew should

Set the MAA at 1300ft

If the MAA is higher than 1300ft, set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA to avoid inadvertent ALT ACQ.

Set the MAA at 2000ft AAL

Set the MAA when ALT ACQ is annunciated

What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after take-off in a no engine bleed T/O configuration?

Minimum descend height

1200ft AAL

Minimum Flap retraction height

Obstacle clearance height

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

There is no need to check the Hydraulic Pressures, it's an engineering function.

At Top of Climb.

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON

When blanking the lower DU, during the Before Taxi Procedure.

Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what action shall be taken after completing the engine start procedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed and hand signals received from the ground crew?

Select GEN 1 and 2 ON and select APU OFF

Select GEN 1 and 2 ON and select ISOLATION VALVE to AUTO

Select APU OFF and ISOLATION VALVE to CLOSED

Do not perform any action from memory and complete the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.

FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the clearance and

The PF calls for the desired WPT to be selected on top.

The PF promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

The PF calls for the desired WPT to be selected on top and specifies whether ABEAMS are required or not.

The response the GPWS "MINIMUMS" is

ONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

LAND / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

VISUAL / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

Go around thrust is set to 93%

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a positive rate of climb

Check that the VSI indicates a positive rate of climb and call "Positive Rate"

What is the priority when a volcanic ash cloud encounter is identified?

Continue straight ahead in all cases but descend immediately.

Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible by commencing a 180 degree turn.

Continue on through the ash cloud as quickly as possible by accelerating.

Continue on through the ash cloud but slow down to reduce the intake of volcanic ash into the engines.

The aircraft may be operated safely up to

the LIDO indicated altitude

the maximum altitude indicated in the FMC

FL410 in any configuration

the optimum altitude indicated in the FMC

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

SET QNH____, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY INSTRUMENTS SET

Below which temperature is not permitted to start or motor the engine?

-40°F

-35°F

-35°C

-40°C

If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes the previously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows on the airspeed indication.

TRUE

FALSE

What is the volcanic ash cloud encounter recovery?

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL Select lower altitude and engage LVL CHG Disengage AT and close thrust levers

Select lower altitude and engage VS at 1000ft/min

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL Disengage AT and close thrust levers

Select lower altitude and engage LVL CHG Disengage AT and close thrust levers

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

Should be selected on completion of the approach checks with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected descending through MSA with the purpose of monitoring cross track error, vertical deviation and ANP/RNP.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring only ANP/RNP.

At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-takeoff contamination check is required:

The aircraft must always be de-iced/anti-iced again

This check must be completed externally by a qualified person

This can be performed from within the cabin

Operations must be consulted for clarification before proceeding further

Where is weather information available on the EFB?

OPT

EFL

DOCUNET

ECREW

If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what should crews do?

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

Dispatch is not permitted.

Contact Operations

Delete the OPT application and re-install it.

Should both EFBs become inoperative during flight, with no back up paper charts available on board, crew should

Declare a mayday

Make a Pan call

Use available FMC information and obtain necessary enroute or approach details from the ATC unit on VHF to allow safe approach and landing at the destination/diversion airport.

Switch the EFBs off and then on again

When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what is the default weight?

45,000 kgs

32,000 kgs

65,317 kgs

50,000 kgs

At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-takeoff contamination check is required:

Operations must be consulted for clarification before proceeding further

This check must be completed externally by a qualified person

The aircraft must always be de-iced/anti-iced again

This can be performed from within the cabin

With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

Passing FL100

the selection of FLAPS UP

the AFTER TAKE-OFF checklist

3000ft agl

The "Landing Gate" requires the aircraft to be fully stabilised:

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (VMC & IMC) (all approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (IMC) (all approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (VMC) (ILS approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)

During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative, when does the PF call 'BUG UP'?

At the OPT calculated MFRA

At 1000ft altitude

At 3000ft AAL

At 1000ft AAL

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

Is not permitted

Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated

Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning stage that is within a NFZ?

Yes

When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button during the before takeoff checks?

When ATC requests to expedite departure.

After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.

A Window Heat ON light is extinguished and the associated WINDOW HEAT switch is ON. To check if it has failed you should

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and position the Window Heat Test switch to OVHT. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and press Master Caution RECALL. A MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and position the Window Heat Test switch to PWR. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

What action shall be taken after positioning the engine start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure?

Verify Hydraulic Accumulator Pressure Indicator.

Verify GEN1/GEN2 AC volts on the electrical metering panel.

Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.

Verify the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light is illuminated bright.

Which statement is correct regarding the circling procedure?

Timing is not required as LNAV will provide lateral guidance.

PM times the crosswind leg and PF times the downwind leg.

PF times the crosswind leg and PM times the downwind leg.

Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will .

Set the standby altimeter to STD.

Wait until the gear up, lights out call before setting their altimeters to STD.

Release the cabin crew.

Set their altimeters to STD.

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature for CSFF relief?

no limit

at or above -16

When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call 'FL___ SET, THREE TIMES' checking the MCP Alt, FLT ALT and the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?

LEGS Page

CRZ Page

PROG Page 1

CRZ Page

During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and crossfeed selector be?

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector OPEN

Left center tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector OPEN

Right centre tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector CLOSED

Right centre tank fuel pump On and crossfeed selector OPEN

If your destination and alternate become unsuitable, once you have found a suitable alternate the fuel required is:

the fuel from your present position to the new alternate + 5%

the final reserve fuel

the fuel from your present position to the new alternate plus the final reserve fuel

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?

After calling "SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP"

After autopilot engagement

After 400 ft

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP, assures that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the controls. Then engages the A/P and the A/T.

PM engages the A/P and the A/T to reduce workload. Then the PF selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP.

Who is responsible to call "FLAPS 15" when the position is indicated on the flap position indicator?

The Pilot Flying when requesting "GEAR DOWN".

The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START switches to CONT and checking RECA

The Pilot Flying when responding to the landing checklist items.

There is no need to check if flap 15 is indicating correctly.

Correct Mark 4.00 out of 4.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose the most appropriate answer.

True, and use the ALT HOLD mode.

True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.

False, never use CWS.

If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight:

Increase IAS.

Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist.

Descend to a lower level.

No action is required.

What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during engine start procedure?

To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

To ensure the no engine bleed takeoff procedure is completed correctly.

To speed up the engine start procedure for engine number 1.

To configure the air conditioning panel for single pack operation.

What should be declared to ATC when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

No special call required

“Minimum Fuel, callsign”

“PAN PAN x3, FUEL, callsign”

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call during an RTO?

Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could interrupt these procedures

The purpose of the call is to inform cabin crew to resume normal procedures.

This is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

What is "Deviation Fuel"?

Extra fuel carried at the discretion of the Commander for operational reasons in accordance with Operations Manual Part A.

Deviation fuel allows for MEL items that will increase fuel burn and will be added by flight planning.

Fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome.

Fuel to account for en-route or destination weather restrictions

What is considered a volcanic ash medium contamination area?

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 3mg/m3

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

What should be declared to ATC when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

“Minimum Fuel, callsign”

No special call required

“PAN PAN x3, FUEL, callsign”

“MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

What range ring must be entered for the landing runway in the fix page on the RWxx point when planning a circle to land?

4.2

If the EFB mounting device is not available, where should the EFB be stowed durung critical phases of flight?

With the tech log

Held by the Pilot Monitoring

In the crewmember's flight bag

On the glareshield

Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi and runway turnoff light:

There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these lights if the aircraft must stop during taxi

The taxi light must be switched off when the aircraft is stationary

Runway turnoff and taxi lights are not required during day VMC operations

The runway turnoff and taxi lights should be switched off when the aircraft is stationary

Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure?

yes

Prior to pushback, the "Passengers Seated" signal:

Is received by pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the L1 door is closed

Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

Is obtained by the F/O via the service interphone

Is received by the F/O pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the Captain

When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be continued?

TRUE

Only if the RVR is expected to Improve

True, but only on a cat 2/3 approach

FALSE

If you encounter Severe Turbulence during high altitude cruise flight:

Set M0.76 and engage ALT HLD

Set 280kts and engage ALT HLD

Set CON from the N1 limit page and allow A/T to set the appropriate thrust

Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1 as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call? Select one:

This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is unnecessary during a Rejected Takeoff where cabin crew have defined roles and procedures to follow.

This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is necessary during a Rejected Takeoff only.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC instruction require the following actions and call-outs?

PM selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls the mode.

PF selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD. The PM verifies the FMA and calls the mode.

The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls 'VNAV' for all MCP ALT selections.

PF selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls the mode.

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call during an RTO?

Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could interrupt these procedures.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

The purpose of the call is to inform cabin crew to resume normal procedures.

This is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

How is the Wing Anti-Ice used in flight?

The Primary method is at CPT discretion.

The Primary method is to use it as a de-icer by allowing ice to accumulate.

Never use the Wing Anti-ice in flight.

The Primary method is to use it before ice accumulation occurs.

When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the cruise, crew should

No specific action is needed

Select/verify CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page

Disengage the Autopilot

When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the APU off during the engine start procedure?

GEN2 after engine 2 is stabilized and GEN1 after engine 1 is stable.

Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated.

Once the parking brake is set and during the before takeoff checklist

Only when engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated and the tug and tow bar has been disconnected and the by-pass pin has been removed.

Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence penetration procedures?

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, set speed M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise open the speed window and adjust thr speed to maintain an equal position between VMO/MMO and the top of the minimum maneuver speed.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set N1 to fly and maintain M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the FMC CRUISE page.

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for takeoffs?

The first heading expected on the SID

Runway HDG

The expected HDG allowing for drift

For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is the recommended roll mode for the final approach?

LNAV

CWS

HDG SEL

VOR/LOC

During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is:

1/2 dot Glide Slope

1 dot Localizer

1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)

1/3 dot Glide Slope

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is:

18 Quarts

12 Quarts

18 Litres

12 Litres

What is the Engine starter duty cycle limit?

1 minute and 30 seconds

1 minute

3 minutes

2 minutes

The 10 Checks are performed during descent using the F.L.A.P.S.-Recall mnemonic. What does the 'A' stand for?

Altimeters

Angle of bank

Autobrake

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

Check that the VSI indicates a positive rate of climb and call "Positive Rate"

Go around thrust is set to 93%

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a postitive rate of climb

Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and the APU OFF during the engine start procedure?

When both engines are stable and the parking brake has been set.

When both engines are stable provided there are no additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.

When one engine is stable and the pushback has been complete.

When at least one engine is stable.

For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no later than:

4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point

The OM, or 1000' AAL if no OM exists

Gear down

1000' AAL if IMC, 500' AAL if VMC

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

Is permitted

Is not permitted

Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated, crosswind component 10kts or less, anti-skid and thrust reversers operative, bleeds ON, no potential windshear conditions exist, EECs in normal mode and not prohibited by the AFB

During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder and aileron trim checked to be free and zero?

It is completed only before the first flight of the day.

It is completed for all flights.

It is completed if the trim has been used during the previous flight.

After a crew change, it is completed before the first flight only.

Which of the following statements is the correct in specific relation to Takeoff Procedures in Cold Weather Operations?

Extend the flaps to the takeoff setting once lined up on the runway if they have been held in the UP position due slush, standing water or freezing conditions.

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, do an engine run up, as needed, to minimize ice build-up.

Wing Anti-ice must always be selected ON.

Which of the following statements is the correct in specific relation to Takeoff Procedures in Cold Weather Operations?

During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad message:

Only the PM is required to acknowledge the message as this is not PF's area of responsibility

This message must be cleared immediately to allow subsequent messages to be displayed

Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is cleared

The message may be ignored until reaching top of climb as this is a critical phase of flight

What is the correct order of the items reviewed by the CPT during the TAKEOFF BRIEFING?

Courses, V2, HDG, MCP altitude, Time, QNH, indicated altitude and MFRA.

Packs, bleeds, speeds, SID, stop altitude, emergency turn (if applicable) and adverse weather.

Time, QNH, indicated altitude, MFRA, Courses, V2, HDG, and MCP altitude.

Packs, bleeds, speeds, Squawk, Time, QNH, indicated altitude and MFRA.

When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?

It is never set

1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

500ft AAL (Top of the amber band)

Once overhead the FAF

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure?

The ground crew must be aware and clear you for a crossbleed start before or during the pushback, there is no need to notify ATC.

When advancing the thrust lever to increase the duct pressure, you may need to provide additional thrust if you have decided to keep the PACK switches on.

There is no need to check the area behind the aircraft is clear as the anti-collision light is on.

The pushback must be complete with the parking brake set, the tug disconnected, and ATC clearance is obtained.

If the Navtech application is available on only the Captain's EFB in flight, what will the crew do? Select one:

Continue to use the Navtech application, but single EFB procedures apply.

Download the charts from the FDF

Both crewmembers download the charts to iBooks

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

PM engages the A/P and the A/T to reduce workload. Then the PF selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP.

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

Enter wind direction and steady wind value plus half of the gust value and complete the performance calculation.

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation.

Enter wind direction and full gust value only. Check that crosswind is within limits and continue with the calculation.

Enter wind direction and steady wind value. Complete the performance calculation.

When is the transponder mode selector set '2000, then STBY', during the taxi in procedure?

When the marshaller is in sight.

After the airplane has come to a complete stop

After vacating the runway.

When requested by the captain.

Can you go to the Loss of Thrust On Both Engines QRH checklist if the condition statement is not met if directed by the Volcanic Ash QRH checklist?

Yes

Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF?

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 400 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 3000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP altitude may be selected no lower than

500 feet AFE

1000 feet AMSL

1000 feet AFE

When should the "ENGINE + WING" Anti-Ice setting be used on the OPT for takeoff performance calculations?

When the OAT is +10 degrees Celsius or less and visible moisture is present

When the OAT is +3 degrees Celsius or less and visible moisture is present

When you select WING ANTI-ICE ON before takeoff, even if you are not expecting to re-select it ON until after passing the MSA

When you are expecting to select WING ANTI-ICE ON after liftoff but before reaching the MSA

If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this indicates:

The RAAS system has been deactivated

Any alerts generated are invalid

Some RAAS alerts may continue to function

All RAAS alerts are inhibited