SOPs quiz

Welcome to your SOPs

Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence penetration procedures?

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the FMC CRUISE page.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set N1 to fly and maintain M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise open the speed window and adjust thr speed to maintain an equal position between VMO/MMO and the top of the minimum maneuver speed.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, set speed M.76.

What criteria must be met to allow selection of V/S with flaps extended on departure?

Never

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule

A SID speed restriction results in delaying the flap retraction schedule and the aircraft has accelerated to the assigned speed restriction and the climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude and AFDS is engaged above MFRA.

At any time when he climb rate needs to be reduced in order to comply with Ryanair policy on V/S when approaching stop altitude.

When the MDA is 900ft AAL or higher on a non-precision approach the crew should

Set the MAA at 2000ft AAL

Set the MAA at 1300ft

If the MAA is higher than 1300ft, set the MAA in the MCP Altitude window when the aircraft is 300ft above MDA/DA to avoid inadvertent ALT ACQ.

Set the MAA when ALT ACQ is annunciated

What considerations should be evaluated before attempting to re-engage the A/P?

Assure the aircraft is above the MSA and the A/T is OFF.

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and the A/T is ON.

Correct Assure the aircraft is in level flight and speed is above 220 kts.

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the control column/wheel.

After landing if the turnoff is 90 degrees, what is the maximum allowed speed?

When do you select the transponder to ALT OFF during engine start / push?

The CPT selects the transponder to ALT OFF to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

The F/O selects the transponder to ALT OFF to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

The F/O selects the transponder to ALT OFF to as part of the below the line flow.

The F/O selects the transponder to TA RA to indicate aircraft position to ATC prior to requesting the push and start clearance.

If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what should crews do?

Contact Operations

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

Delete the OPT application and re-install it.

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call during an RTO?

The purpose of the call is to inform cabin crew to resume normal procedures.

Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could interrupt these procedures.

This is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

Check that the VSI indicates a positive rate of climb and call "Positive Rate"

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a postitive rate of climb

Go around thrust is set to 93%

What action shall be taken after positioning the engine start lever to IDLE detent during engine start procedure?

Verify SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.

Verify GEN1/GEN2 AC volts on the electrical metering panel.

Verify Hydraulic Accumulator Pressure Indicator.

Verify the RAM DOOR FULL OPEN light is illuminated bright.

Minimum engine oil quantity for dispatch (as displayed on the lower DU) is:

18 Litres

18 Quarts

12 Quarts

12 Litres

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

PF calls for the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP, assures that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the controls. Then the PM engages the A/P and the A/T.

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

PM engages the A/P and the A/T to reduce workload. Then the PF selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP.

What is the diversion distance (maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval) for the RYR B737-800?

396 nm

416 nm

none of the above

427 nm

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

Should be selected on completion of the approach checks with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring only ANP/RNP.

Should be selected descending through MSA with the purpose of monitoring cross track error, vertical deviation and ANP/RNP.

What is the volcanic ash cloud encounter recovery?

Select lower altitude and engage LVL CHG Disengage AT and close thrust levers

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL Select lower altitude and engage LVL CHG Disengage AT and close thrust levers

Select reciprocal heading and engage HDG SEL Disengage AT and close thrust levers

Select lower altitude and engage VS at 1000ft/min

What is considered a volcanic ash low contamination area?

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 3mg/m3

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning stage that is within a NFZ?

Yes

When should the "ENGINE + WING" Anti-Ice setting be used on the OPT for takeoff performance calculations?

When you are expecting to select WING ANTI-ICE ON after liftoff but before reaching the MSA

When the OAT is +10 degrees Celsius or less and visible moisture is present

When you select WING ANTI-ICE ON before takeoff, even if you are not expecting to re-select it ON until after passing the MSA

When the OAT is +3 degrees Celsius or less and visible moisture is present

Inexperienced co-pilots or a co-pilot newly converted onto type shall not conduct the landing when specific weather conditions are experienced. Choose the most appropriate description.

When the crosswind is in excess of 22kts during normal operations with suitable runway limitations and conditions

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kts during normal operations regardless of runway limitations and conditions

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3rds limiting value, whichever is greater

When the crosswind is in excess of 15kt during normal operations or when the crosswind is more than 2/3rds limiting value, whichever is lower

What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after take-off in a no engine bleed T/O configuration?

Obstacle clearance height

MDH

MFRA

1200ft AAL

What range ring must be entered for the landing runway in the fix page on the RWxx point when planning a circle to land?

4.2

During the preflight Flight Deck Access System Test the correct action after the Emergency Access Code is entered and the AUTO UNLK light illuminates is:

Flight Deck Access System switch to NORM

Flight Deck Access System switch to OFF

Flight deck door lock selector to DENY

Flight deck door lock selector to UNLKD

During the before taxi procedure in icing conditions, engine anti-ice is selected ON. The COWL VALVE OPEN light on engine no. 1 illuminates bright, and stays illuminated bright. Choose one of the following actions.

This is normal, and indicates that the cowl valve is fully open.

Engine anti-ice is not available on the affected engine, position the switch to OFF and resume normal operations.

Shut down the engine and contact maintrol.

Position the APU BLEED air switch to OFF and increase thrust slightly, up to a maximum of 30 % N1.

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

When blanking the lower DU, during the Before Taxi Procedure.

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON

At Top of Climb.

There is no need to check the Hydraulic Pressures, it's an engineering function.

When can flight crew inhibit RAAS?

Airline policy (airfield brief) prohibits the RAAS for the intended airport or the runway.

All of the other answers are correct

NOTAM applies to the intended runway.

Airport is not in the GPWS database.

At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-takeoff contamination check is required:

This can be performed from within the cabin

This check must be completed externally by a qualified person

Operations must be consulted for clarification before proceeding further

The aircraft must always be de-iced/anti-iced again

During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and crossfeed selector be?

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector OPEN

Right centre tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector CLOSED

Right centre tank fuel pump On and crossfeed selector OPEN

Left center tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector OPEN

At the runway holding point, it is determined that a pre-takeoff contamination check is required:

The aircraft must always be de-iced/anti-iced again

This check must be completed externally by a qualified person

Operations must be consulted for clarification before proceeding further

This can be performed from within the cabin

What is the mandatory pitch mode to be used during climb?

LVL CHG below FL100, VNAV above FL100.

VNAV below FL100, LVL CHG above FL100

LVL CHG unless FMC Target Speed will provide better climb performance.

VNAV, unless approaching the cleared Altitude/Flight Level, the sustained climb rate is in excess of 3000ft, 2000ft or 1000ft per minute, where by V/S may be selected.

What is the three step escalation process for protecting minimum reserve fuel?

Request EAT – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – Request EAT – MAYDAY FUEL call

The Fasten Belts switch should be selected to ON when:

Passing FL150

Performing the 10 checks

At 15 minutes to landing

Passing FL150 or 15 minutes to landing

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

Is permitted

Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated, crosswind component 10kts or less, anti-skid and thrust reversers operative, bleeds ON, no potential windshear conditions exist, EECs in normal mode and not prohibited by the AFB

Is not permitted

If your destination and alternate become unsuitable, once you have found a suitable alternate the fuel required is:

the fuel from your present position to the new alternate plus the final reserve fuel

the final reserve fuel

the fuel from your present position to the new alternate + 5%

During a 2 engine go around, the PF calls for gear up. What should the PM crosscheck before positioning the gear up?

Both VSI and altimeter indicate a positive rate of climb

Go around thrust is set to 93%

Check that the VSI indicates a positive rate of climb and call "Positive Rate"

EI-FOC onwards. During cruise in VNAV PTH, a lower MCP Altitude is selected, followed by ALT INTV more than 50Nm before TOD. The aircraft will

initiate an early descent at 1000ft/min until capturing the VNAV path, if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate a CRZ descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint OR initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is below any FMC altitude constraint.

initiate an early descent if the selected altitude is above any FMC altitude constraint.

If OAT is changed after the V speeds have been entered on the TAKEOFF REF page, the FMC removes the previously entered V speeds and a NO VSPD flag shows on the airspeed indication.

TRUE

FALSE

During any Go-Around when is ATC called if required?

After calling "SPEED CHECKS, FLAPS UP"

After 400 ft

After autopilot engagement

Can an enroute alternate be considered at the planning stage that is within a NFZ?

Verbally tell the engineer at the next suitable location.

No action required.

A techlog entry must be made.

Visually inspect the engines and if nothing found, no action required.

The response the GPWS "MINIMUMS" is

ONTINUE / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

VISUAL / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

LAND / GO-AROUND, FLAPS 15

Which of the following statements is the correct in specific relation to Takeoff Procedures in Cold Weather Operations?

Wing Anti-ice must always be selected ON.

Which of the following statements is the correct in specific relation to Takeoff Procedures in Cold Weather Operations?

When engine anti-ice is required and the OAT is 3°C or below, do an engine run up, as needed, to minimize ice build-up.

Extend the flaps to the takeoff setting once lined up on the runway if they have been held in the UP position due slush, standing water or freezing conditions.

What should the pressurisation FLT ALT window be set to during the Preflight procedure?

Optimum cruise altitude (or ATC capped level, if lower)

LIDO final planned level

Filed level or lower if performance limited or level capped.

Current step climb level corresponding with MCP and FMC

A Window Heat ON light is extinguished and the associated WINDOW HEAT switch is ON. To check if it has failed you should

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and press Master Caution RECALL. A MASTER CAUTION, AIR COND and extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and position the Window Heat Test switch to PWR. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

Confirm Window Heat switches are ON and position the Window Heat Test switch to OVHT. An extinguished ON light indicates that window heat has failed.

What position are the IRS mode selectors positioned to during the preflight procedures?

OFF

ATT

ALIGN

NAV

What should be declared to ATC when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

No special call required

“PAN PAN x3, FUEL, callsign”

“Minimum Fuel, callsign”

When can both GEN1 and GEN2 be selected ON and the APU off during the engine start procedure?

GEN2 after engine 2 is stabilized and GEN1 after engine 1 is stable.

Once both engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated.

Once the parking brake is set and during the before takeoff checklist

Only when engines are confirmed stable by the PM and the GEN OFF BUS lights are illuminated and the tug and tow bar has been disconnected and the by-pass pin has been removed.

Which statement is correct regarding the sequence of actions when ALT HOLD is annunciated during a circling procedure?

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PM shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET AND CHECKED’

The PM verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’.

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, sets the MAA in the MCP altitude and calls ‘XXX FEET SET’.

The PF verifies and calls ‘ALT HOLD’ from the FMA, points at the Missed Approach Altitude on the FMC legs page and calls ‘XXX FEET’. PF shall then set the MAA in the MCP altitude, point to it and call ‘SET’. PM shall call ‘CHECKED’

Prior to pushback, the "Passengers Seated" signal:

Is given by the No 1 prior to pushback

Is obtained by the F/O via the service interphone

Is received by the F/O pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the Captain

Is received by pressing the cabin ATTEND button once the L1 door is closed

With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

Passing FL100

the AFTER TAKE-OFF checklist

the selection of FLAPS UP

3000ft agl

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for takeoffs?

The first heading expected on the SID

Runway HDG

The expected HDG allowing for drift

If the Boeing OPT is unavailable on both EFBs, what should crews do?

Download the required RTOWs to the FDF and prepare a paper load sheet.

Contact Operations

Delete the OPT application and re-install it.

Dispatch is not permitted.

The "Landing Gate" requires the aircraft to be fully stabilised:

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (VMC & IMC) (all approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (IMC) (all approaches)

What considerations should be evaluated before attempting to re-engage the A/P?

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and the A/T is ON.

Assure that the aircraft is following the FD commands, is in trim about all axes and that there is no pressure on the control column/wheel.

Assure the aircraft is above the MSA and the A/T is OFF.

Assure the aircraft is in level flight and speed is above 220 kts.

What is the Engine starter duty cycle limit?

2 minutes

3 minutes

1 minute

1 minute and 30 seconds

If the Navtech application is available on only the Captain's EFB in flight, what will the crew do? Select one:

Download the charts from the FDF

Both crewmembers download the charts to iBooks

Continue to use the Navtech application, but single EFB procedures apply.

On landing a Go-Around can be initiated at any time up to?

Selecting reverse thrust

Select autobrake selector to OFF

Selecting the speedbrake lever to the up position

Selecting thrust levers to idle

When should progress page 4/4 be selected with reference to approach procedures and what is the purpose of this operation?

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring only ANP/RNP.

Should be selected descending through MSA with the purpose of monitoring cross track error, vertical deviation and ANP/RNP.

Should be selected on completion of the approach checks with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

Should be selected once cleared for an approach with the purpose of monitoring lateral and vertical deviation.

For all ILS approaches, G/S capture must be achieved no later than:

Gear down

1000' AAL if IMC, 500' AAL if VMC

The OM, or 1000' AAL if no OM exists

4 or 5 miles DME / 4 or 5 nm from the RW point

During a normal NADP 2 takeoff with 2 engines operative, when does the PF call 'BUG UP'?

At 3000ft AAL

At the OPT calculated MFRA

At 1000ft AAL

At 1000ft altitude

Below which temperature is not permitted to start or motor the engine?

-35°F

-40°C

-35°C

-40°F

During the post flight procedures who annunciates "Doors to manual and crosscheck"?

CPT

What is "Deviation Fuel"?

Deviation fuel allows for MEL items that will increase fuel burn and will be added by flight planning.

Fuel to account for en-route or destination weather restrictions

Fuel required to compensate for unforeseen factors which could have an influence on the fuel consumption to the destination aerodrome.

Extra fuel carried at the discretion of the Commander for operational reasons in accordance with Operations Manual Part A.

Which statement is correct If an engine failure occurs during a NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF?

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 3000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1500 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 1000 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Do not position the engine BLEED switches ON until reaching 400 ft or until obstacle clearance height has been attained.

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure?

The ground crew must be aware and clear you for a crossbleed start before or during the pushback, there is no need to notify ATC

There is no need to check the area behind the aircraft is clear as the anti-collision light is on.

When advancing the thrust lever to increase the duct pressure, you may need to provide additional thrust if you have decided to keep the PACK switches on.

There is no need to check the area behind the aircraft is clear as the anti-collision light is on.

Select which statement is true with regard to a NADP1 departure.

At 1000 ft AAL PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 1000 RA PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 3000 ft QNH PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

At 1000 ft AGL PF will select CMD A or B and call 'COMMAND A or B' when annunciated on the FMA.

Is the Landing Dispatch Performance required to be calculated before the Final CDU Preflight Procedure?

yes

What is the three step escalation process for protecting minimum reserve fuel?

MINIMUM FUEL – Request EAT – MAYDAY FUEL call

MINIMUM FUEL – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

Request EAT – MINIMUM FUEL – MAYDAY FUEL call

Request EAT – PAN PAN call – MAYDAY FUEL call

MCP altitude changes during climb following an ATC instruction require the following actions and call-outs?

PM selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls the mode.

PF selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls the mode.

PF selects/confirms VNAV or LVL CHG or V/S on the MCP/PFD. The PM verifies the FMA and calls the mode.

The PF selects/confirms VNAV mode on the MCP/PFD, verifies FMA and calls 'VNAV' for all MCP ALT selections.

During Fuel Balancing with fuel in the center tank what should the position of the center tank fuel pumps and crossfeed selector be?

Both center tank fuel pumps Off and crosfeed selector OPEN

Left center tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector OPEN

Right centre tank fuel pump ON and crossfeed selector CLOSED

Right centre tank fuel pump On and crossfeed selector OPEN

PF response to RAAS "On Runway __" (cleared for take-off) is:

"Checked"

"___/___ Timing"

"Timing"

"Start time"

In the event of Docunet being unavailable, where can flight manuals be downloaded to?

They are always available in iBooks without needing to be downloaded.

Safety TV

Boeing OPT

Flight Dispatch Folder application

Where is weather information available on the EFB?

OPT

EFL

DOCUNET

ECREW

The TR units output, on the electrical panel, should be checked as part of the after start scan?

true

false

What is considered a volcanic ash high contamination area?

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Equal to or greater than 4mg/m3 only.

Equal to or greater than 4mg/m3, or areas of contaminated airspace where no ash concentration guidance is available.

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

When will the First Officer press the cabin attend button during the before takeoff checks?

After the take-off briefing has been reviewed by the CP.

When ATC requests to expedite departure.

Which Statement is correct in regard to performing the Engine Crossbleed Start (RYR) Supplementary Procedure?

The ground crew must be aware and clear you for a crossbleed start before or during the pushback, there is no need to notify ATC.

The pushback must be complete with the parking brake set, the tug disconnected, and ATC clearance is obtained.

When advancing the thrust lever to increase the duct pressure, you may need to provide additional thrust if you have decided to keep the PACK switches on.

There is no need to check the area behind the aircraft is clear as the anti-collision light is on.

How is the Wing Anti-Ice used in flight?

The Primary method is to use it before ice accumulation occurs.

The Primary method is at CPT discretion.

Never use the Wing Anti-ice in flight.

The Primary method is to use it as a de-icer by allowing ice to accumulate.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Isolated Pack Operation during Engine Start supplementary procedure?

This considers one Pack switch position set to AUTO if there is a delay after both engines start before the air system is re-configured.

This considers the Isolation valve switch position set to CLOSE to allow ONE Pack Switch to be selected to HIGH mode. This is to improve air quality when the cabin is very warm.

This considers the Isolation valve switch position set to CLOSE to allow BOTH Pack Switch to be selected to HIGH mode. This is to improve air quality when the cabin is very warm.

This considers the Isolation Valve switch position set to CLOSE and the Right PACK switch position set to AUTO after No.2 Engine has stabilized after Engine Start. This is to improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

What is the minimum height required to switch Engine Bleed air switches on following an engine failure after take-off in a no engine bleed T/O configuration?

1200ft AAL

Minimum descend height

Obstacle clearance height

Minimum Flap retraction height

During ILS CATII/III approaches the maximum allowed deviation is:

1/2 dot Glide Slope

1/3 dot Glide Slope

1/3 dot Localizer (2/3 from center to dot on the localizer expanded scale)

1 dot Localizer

Which is the correct order during the final CDU preflight procedure after selecting the OPT C/G in the CDU?

V SPEEDS, send output, MFRA, STAB TRIM, before start checklist to the line

V SPEEDS, MFRA, STAB TRIM, send output

STAB TRIM, MFRA, V SPEEDS, send output

STAB TRIM, V SPEEDS, MFRA, send output

If ice crystal icing is suspected during flight:

Descend to a lower level.

No action is required.

Do the Ice Crystal Icing non-normal checklist.

Increase IAS.

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call? Select one:

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is unnecessary during a Rejected Takeoff where cabin crew have defined roles and procedures to follow.

This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

This is not part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is necessary during a Rejected Takeoff only.

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

What is the correct method to calculate OPT performance for take-off in gusty headwind conditions?

Enter wind direction and full gust value only. Check that crosswind is within limits and continue with the calculation.

Enter wind direction and steady wind value plus half of the gust value and complete the performance calculation.

Enter wind direction and steady wind value. Complete the performance calculation.

Enter wind direction and full gust value to check that crosswind is within limits. Then enter the steady wind direction (without gust value) to complete the performance calculation.

If the EFB mounting device is not available, where should the EFB be stowed durung critical phases of flight?

Held by the Pilot Monitoring

In the crewmember's flight bag

With the tech log

On the glareshield

FMC Route Modifications en-route: Upon receipt of an ATC DIRECT TO clearance, the PM reads back the clearance and

The PM promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

The PF calls for the desired WPT to be selected on top.

The PF promptly selects the desired WPT to the scratchpad, then to 1L of LEGS page 1.

The PF calls for the desired WPT to be selected on top and specifies whether ABEAMS are required or not.

Ryanair will not plan or intentionally conduct operations in areas known to contain visible or discernible Volcanic Ash (VA) or areas where ash concentrations have been measured above which level?

2mg/m3

6mg/m3

3mg/m3

4mg/m3

For a VOR NPA approach not coded in the FMC, which is the recommended roll mode for the final approach?

HDG SEL

LNAV

VOR/LOC

CWS

When is the transponder mode selector set '2000, then STBY', during the taxi in procedure?

After vacating the runway.

When the marshaller is in sight.

When requested by the captain.

After the airplane has come to a complete stop

No Ryanair revenue flight shall be planned to arrive at destination with less than

Final Reserve Fuel + 500Kg

Final Reserve Fuel

936Kg of fuel

1800Kg of fuel

During the climb as PM you see a FMC scratchpad message:

The message may be ignored until reaching top of climb as this is a critical phase of flight

Both pilots must acknowledge the message before it is cleared

This message must be cleared immediately to allow subsequent messages to be displayed

Only the PM is required to acknowledge the message as this is not PF's area of responsibility

When setting airspeed bugs with no operative FMC, what is the default weight?

50,000 kgs

65,317 kgs

45,000 kgs

32,000 kgs

When is the missed approach altitude set on a Non Precision Approach?

1000ft AAL (Top of the white band)

500ft AAL (Top of the amber band)

Once overhead the FAF

It is never set

Can you go to the Loss of Thrust On Both Engines QRH checklist if the condition statement is not met if directed by the Volcanic Ash QRH checklist?

Yes

Regarding to the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF, what action shall be taken after completing the engine start procedure with both engines stable, parking brake set, tug and towbar disconnected, bypass pin removed and hand signals received from the ground crew?

Select GEN 1 and 2 ON and select ISOLATION VALVE to AUTO

Do not perform any action from memory and complete the NO ENGINE BLEED TAKEOFF checklist as instructed.

Select APU OFF and ISOLATION VALVE to CLOSED

Select GEN 1 and 2 ON and select APU OFF

Below FL100 in Class C airspace, ATC ask you to maintain speed 280kts for separation:

Crews may increase speed above 250kts below FL100 at their own discretion

You comply as this is a specific speed instruction from ATC

You call 'unable' as the maximum speed below FL100 is 250kts with no exceptions

This is not possible because no separation is provided in class C airspace

During the D.A.L.T.A setup for a circling approach, when setting the range rings for the approach and landing, the pilot should set 10 NM range ring and 4/5 NM ( VMC/IMC) range ring from the approach runway and…

4.2 NM ring from the opposite runway.

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

4.2 NM ring from the landing runway.

4.2 NM including abeam radial from the landing runway.

Which statement is correct regarding the circling procedure?

PF times the crosswind leg and PM times the downwind leg.

Timing is not required as LNAV will provide lateral guidance.

PM times the crosswind leg and PF times the downwind leg.

Both pilots shall time the crosswind leg.

Can the weather radar detect volcanic ash?

Yes

When is the transponder mode selector set '2000, then STBY', during the taxi in procedure?

After the airplane has come to a complete stop.

When requested by the captain.

When the marshaller is in sight.

After vacating the runway.

What is the priority when a volcanic ash cloud encounter is identified?

Continue straight ahead in all cases but descend immediately.

Continue on through the ash cloud but slow down to reduce the intake of volcanic ash into the engines.

Exit the ash cloud as quickly as possible by commencing a 180 degree turn.

Continue on through the ash cloud as quickly as possible by accelerating.

During Flight Deck Safety Inspection, what is the FIRST item to be checked in the Techlog?

It is the Captain's responsibility to check the techlog.

Verify Techlog registration agrees with aircraft registration.

Verify the door code.

After De-Icing or Anti-icing the aircraft, Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust (ATRT):

Is not permitted

Is permitted provided the runway surface is not contaminated

Who submits the EFL flight information at the end of each sector?

CPT

What is the correct order of the items reviewed by the CPT during the TAKEOFF BRIEFING?

Time, QNH, indicated altitude, MFRA, Courses, V2, HDG, and MCP altitude.

Courses, V2, HDG, MCP altitude, Time, QNH, indicated altitude and MFRA.

Packs, bleeds, speeds, Squawk, Time, QNH, indicated altitude and MFRA.

Packs, bleeds, speeds, SID, stop altitude, emergency turn (if applicable) and adverse weather.

During an dual channel Go-Around who will select the appropriate roll mode on the MCP?

CPT

Correct Mark 4.00 out of 4.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Selection of the autopilot Control Wheel Steering is recommended for operation in severe turbulence. Choose the most appropriate answer.

True, and use the ALT HOLD mode.

False, never use CWS.

True, but DO NOT use the ALT HOLD mode.

During the Preflight Procedure, as PF, when do you check that the Brake Accumulator and Hydraulic System A and B pressure are within limits?

At Top of Climb.

When blanking the lower DU, during the Before Taxi Procedure.

After selecting the System A and B Hydraulic Pumps ON.

There is no need to check the Hydraulic Pressures, it's an engineering function.

Once cleared for taxi, the Captain will switch on the taxi and runway turnoff light:

The runway turnoff and taxi lights should be switched off when the aircraft is stationary

Runway turnoff and taxi lights are not required during day VMC operations

The taxi light must be switched off when the aircraft is stationary

There is no requirement to switch off any or all of these lights if the aircraft must stop during taxi

Who is responsible to call "FLAPS 15" when the position is indicated on the flap position indicator?

The Pilot Monitoring after positioning ENGINE START switches to CONT and checking RECA

The Pilot Flying when responding to the landing checklist items.

The Pilot Flying when requesting "GEAR DOWN".

There is no need to check if flap 15 is indicating correctly.

To determine that actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on PROGRESS Page 3

Use the wind shown on the ND

Use the tower reported wind

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on APPROACH REF Page

The 10 Checks are performed during descent using the F.L.A.P.S.-Recall mnemonic. What does the 'A' stand for?

Angle of bank

Altimeters

Autobrake

What is the correct AFDS re-engagement sequence?

PF engages the A/P by pressing CWS on the MCP, then selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes and engages the A/T.

PM engages the A/P and the A/T to reduce workload. Then the PF selects the desired Roll/Pitch modes on the MCP.

When cleared to final cruising level, the PF shall call 'FL___ SET, THREE TIMES' checking the MCP Alt, FLT ALT and the FMC. Which FMC page shall be referred to?

LEGS Page

PROG Page 1

CRZ Page

The "Landing Gate" requires the aircraft to be fully stabilised:

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (IMC) (ILS approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (VMC & IMC) (all approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 1,000 feet (VMC) (ILS approaches)

With landing checklist complete to landing lights by 500 feet (IMC) (all approaches)

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will .

Set their altimeters to STD.

Wait until the gear up, lights out call before setting their altimeters to STD.

Set the standby altimeter to STD.

Release the cabin crew.

Which statement is correct regarding Turbulence penetration procedures?

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise open the speed window and adjust thr speed to maintain an equal position between VMO/MMO and the top of the minimum maneuver speed.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set N1 to fly and maintain M.76.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, disengage the autothrottle and set the TURB N1 from the FMC CRUISE page.

If severe turbulence is encountered during the cruise, set speed M.76.

With more than 453kgs in the centre tank, the Captain may elect to leave the center tank pump switches off until

3000ft agl

the AFTER TAKE-OFF checklist

the selection of FLAPS UP

Passing FL100

If you encounter Severe Turbulence during high altitude cruise flight:

Set M0.76 and engage ALT HLD

Set 280kts and engage ALT HLD

Disconnect Autothrottle and set turbulence penetration N1 as highlighted by TURB N1 on the Cruise page.

Set CON from the N1 limit page and allow A/T to set the appropriate thrust

The aircraft may be operated safely up to

the optimum altitude indicated in the FMC

the maximum altitude indicated in the FMC

FL410 in any configuration

the LIDO indicated altitude

What should be declared to ATC when the calculated usable fuel on landing, at the nearest adequate aerodrome where a safe landing can be performed, is less than final reserve fuel.

“Minimum Fuel, callsign”

“PAN PAN x3, FUEL, callsign”

“MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL, callsign”

No special call required

Under which conditions do we select GEN 1 and 2 ON and the APU OFF during the engine start procedure?

When at least one engine is stable.

When both engines are stable and the parking brake has been set.

When one engine is stable and the pushback has been complete.

When both engines are stable provided there are no additional defects and there is no requirement to perform a NO ENGINE BLEED takeoff.

What is the minimum fuel tank temperature for CSFF relief?

no limit

at or above -16

In descent when setting QNH what is the correct PF call?

SET QNH____, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY ALTIMETER SET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET

SET QNH____, PASSING____ DESCENDING ___FEET, ___ FLAGS, STANDBY INSTRUMENTS SET

What is the purpose of the isolated pack operation during engine start procedure?

To ensure the no engine bleed takeoff procedure is completed correctly.

To improve cabin air quality between starting the first and second engine.

To speed up the engine start procedure for engine number 1.

To configure the air conditioning panel for single pack operation.

Which statement is correct regarding the ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call during an RTO?

The purpose of the call is to inform cabin crew to resume normal procedures.

Cabin crew will follow established procedures following an RTO. ‘Cabin Crew Standby’ call at this point could interrupt these procedures

This is part of the On Ground Emergency procedure and is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff.

This is mandatory during a Rejected Takeoff to prompt cabin crew to interrupt all the procedures.

What shoud be considered during the D.A.L.T.A briefing of a Non Precision Approach that has an offset of more than 5 degrees ?

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 185 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 400 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 160 m.

To increase the published minimum RVR from the approach plate by 300 m.

If the RUNWAY INOP light is illuminated with the RUNWAY INHIBIT switch in the normal position, this indicates:

Some RAAS alerts may continue to function

Any alerts generated are invalid

The RAAS system has been deactivated

All RAAS alerts are inhibited

At the start of your duty, where should you check the current versions of software that should be installed on your EFB?

Company NOTAM on the EFL.

Displayed on the "Ryanair Apps" application

EFB section on Docunet

The declaration of MINIMUM FUEL informs ATC that:

The aircraft will land with less than final reserve fuel

The aircraft has sufficient fuel to hold for a further 30 minutes before commencing an approach

All planned aerodrome options have been reduced to a specific aerodrome of intended landing and any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned final reserve fuel

When on the Approach and below 1000 ft AAL, the RVR falls below the applicable minimum, may the approach be continued?

FALSE

TRUE

True, but only on a cat 2/3 approach

Only if the RVR is expected to Improve

When capturing the ILS glideslope from above, the MCP altitude may be selected no lower than

1000 feet AFE

500 feet AFE

1000 feet AMSL

1000 feet AFE

When encountering Light or Moderate Turbulence in the cruise, crew should

Select/verify CON on the FMC N1 LIMIT page

No specific action is needed

Disengage the Autopilot

What is the correct status of the SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights during the pre-flight procedure?

Illuminated bright (blue)

Extinguished

Illuminated bright (blue)

Illuminated (amber)

What is considered a volcanic ash medium contamination area?

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Greater than 2mg/m3, but less than 4mg/m3

Equal to or less than 2mg/m3

Greater than 1mg/m3, but less than 3mg/m3

During the Preflight Procedure, how often is the rudder and aileron trim checked to be free and zero?

After a crew change, it is completed before the first flight only.

It is completed for all flights.

It is completed if the trim has been used during the previous flight.

It is completed only before the first flight of the day.

What is the engine parameter value at which the start lever should be moved to idle detent during engine in flight restart?

11% N2

Positive N1

Positive N2

25% N2

Should both EFBs become inoperative during flight, with no back up paper charts available on board, crew should

Declare a mayday

Switch the EFBs off and then on again

Make a Pan call

Use available FMC information and obtain necessary enroute or approach details from the ATC unit on VHF to allow safe approach and landing at the destination/diversion airport.