Route to command quiz

Welcome to your Route to command

Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:

ISA deviation has no effect on altitude capability.

When using HDG SEL, the drag in a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.

You should never fly more than 10 knots above the lower amber band.

HDG SEL provides a bank angle limiting function to avoid exceeding thrust limits during turns.

A double briefing does not have to contain the following:

The autobrake setting to use

Where Flaps 1, 5, Landing Gear, Flaps 15, (25), 30/40 are to be selected

The Autopilot modes and selections to be used during the approach & The ‘Landing Gate’

Both crew’s intentions on becoming visual & both crew’s intentions on reaching MDA if not visual (i.e. the Go-Around procedure for the aircraft to Flaps up)

A Monitored Approach does NOT apply to:

Circle to land approaches

Non Precision Approaches if visibility is less than 3000 meters

Airports without published Low Visibility Procedures

ILS approaches if cloud base is less than 300 feet

A NPA using VNAV must be stabilised by:

FAF

1000 feet in VMC conditions

1000 feet in IMC conditions, 500 feet in VMC

500 feet

A runway with more than 25% of a third covered with more than 3mm of ‘Slush’ is considered for performance reasons to be a

'Contaminated Runway'

‘Damp Runway’

‘Wet Runway’

‘Slippery Runway’

According to the ‘Before Taxi – No Engine Bleed’ Checklist, which of the following is true?

The FO reads the checklist and completes the actions.

Is located on the back side of the winter operations handy dandy.

If wing anti-ice is required for taxi you will configure for a no engine bleed take off just prior to takeoff.

The CPT reads the checklist.

After de-icing with a Type IV fluid, if the Holdover Time expires, what should one do?

Hold Over Time is only advisory, there is no need to de-ice again.

Taxi back and apply another coat of Type IV, no inspection is needed.

Taxi back and ask for backpack de-icing.

Carry out a pre-takeoff contamination check.

After the DAR-01 form has been completed it should:

Be faxed to Dublin Operations.

Immediately be placed next to the QRH by the captain.

Be discarded as soon as the amount of de-icing fluid has been noted on the EFL

Be clipped on the Captains control column to serve as a reminder to check that holdover time is still valid prior to departure (Pre-Takeoff Check).

Airfield classifications in Ryanair are as follows:

Category B always have an ILS approach.

Category A airfields have no night operation capability.

Category A is the most restrictive category and includes specific operational requirements.

Category C is the most restrictive category, requiring additional considerations to Category B.

In automatic flight, all MCP ALT changes following an ATC instruction shall be called by the PF and confirmed by the PM.

Only below MSA

Only when below FL100

The PF resets the MCP altitude and keeps finger in contact with the MCP selector and calls 'SET' while PM verifies the correct MCP altitude is displayed on the PFD and calls 'XXX CHECKED'.

Only during final approach phase

Appropriate Cold Temperature Altitude Corrections shall be made to any published instrument approach procedure altitudes when these are at or below the corrected MSA whenever;

The temperature is below ISA.

Landing in IMC conditions only.

The surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

Icing conditions exist.

An aircraft must be fully stabilized (as defined in the FCOM) passing;

The Landing gate

Ten miles

The FAF

1000 feet (always)

Under which of the following conditions should both the CPT and FO file an ASR?

A Go-Around has been executed below 2000ft AGL.

A takeoff with MTOW 66,990 kgs has been carried out.

A Go-Around has been executed below 1000ft AGL.

A takeoff with MTOW 74,990 kgs has been carried out.

In which of the following condition is the usage of Assumed Temperature Reduced Thrust prohibited?

With a tailwind

On a runway shorter than 7500 feet

On a wet runway

With a crosswind component exceeding 10 knots

An ‘Special EOSID’ (engine failure on takeoff) must be flown with a speed restriction.

The speed restriction must be flown until established in a holding procedure.

The turn should be started at the speed restriction but it is permissible to bug up at MFRA before the turn is completed.

The turn must be flown at the speed restriction.

The speed restriction is advisory only and not required to be flown.

As a tail strike prevention policy, when crosswind component exceeds 10 knots for takeoff:

No thrust derate is permitted.

Always use a full 26k.

Assumed temperature thrust reduction is permitted.

No assume temperature thrust reduction is allowed.

As part of the evacuation checklist, the F/O will:

Pull all engine and APU fire switches and only rotate a fire switch that is illuminated.

Pull and rotate all engine and APU fire switches.

Not pull any fire switches unless a fire switch is illuminated.

Pull and rotate engine fire switches only, unless the APU fire switch is illuminated.

As part of the Route Check, the PF will:

Call 'Checked'.

Call 'Checked' and CPT executes the route.

Call 'Checked' and PM executes the route

Call 'Checked' and state the estimated fuel remaining at destination.

Choose the correct statement regarding FMC (thrust limited) maximum altitude flight:

Airplane drag during a level flight turn may exceed the available thrust.

The stall speed does not change with altitude.

If speed is allowed to drop it can always be recovered by increasing thrust and maintaining altitude.

There is always enough thrust available to make a 25° angle of bank turn.

Which of the following statements is true regarding a tail strike?

A tail strike has a dedicated checklist in the QRH entitled ‘Tail Strike’.

The tailskid protects the aircraft on landing.

A tail strike on takeoff requires no action.

A tail strike on landing requires no action.

For which of the following approaches are Continuous Descent Approaches (2 operating engines) applicable?

ILS approaches only

Non Precision Approaches only

All approaches except V/S NPA and SRA’s

All approaches

Under which conditions may crews plan to fly high speed below FL100?

To improve fuel burn.

Only in the climb if you are in Class A, B or C airspace and have been authorised to do so by ATC.

Never

Only if running behind schedule.

Which is the correct roll mode at 400ft during a GA (providing routing is available)?

No selection is required if you have pressed TOGA

LNAV

VNAV

HDG

Which of the following statements is true regarding a Rejected T/O?

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will inform ATC of the RTO.

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and wait instructions from the Capt.

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake. The FO will select flaps 40 and inform ATC of the RTO.

The CPT will stop the aircraft, set the parking brake and inform ATC of the RTO. The FO will select flaps 40.

During a single channel or manual approach, the PM should call:

CONTINUE' only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call

The visual cues only at the aural ‘MINIMUMS’ call

‘GO AROUND’ if not visual passing the landing gate

The visual cues as they become apparent during the approach

During crosswind takeoffs:

A large aileron input has no effect on tail clearance.

Maximum allowed assumed temperature reduced thrust should be used.

The control wheel should only be displaced in order to keep wings level.

A lower rotation rate should always be used.

During daylight, with failed centre line lights, can you complete a CAT IIIA (CAT3a) approach and if so what are the restrictions (Part A, Chapter 8)?

YES, but RVR must be 500m or greater

NO, this is not permitted

YES, but RVR must be 300m or greater

YES, there are not restrictions

During low visibility operations, the crew should:

Have the ILS tuned to the departure runway for take off

Request a 'Follow Me' car to the runway

Delay extending the flaps until reaching the holding point

Use flaps 10 for departure

Which statement is true regarding visual approaches conducted during night time?

Visual approaches are only permitted where an existing approach for the runway exists in the FMC.

Visual landing are permitted only if there is a published approach procedure.

Visual approaches must be completed.

Visual approaches are only permitted if an ‘Rx’ point is generated in the FMC.

During Taxi in and Taxi out...

The Captain must make all PA’s to passengers.

The First Officer must make all PA’s to passengers.

PA’s are not permitted.

Only essential Safety PA’s are permitted. However, if delays to departure are experienced the Captain may inform the passengers once the parking brake is set.

During taxi in and taxi out...

The Captain must write the instructions in the FMC scratch pad and then progressively monitor the progress of the taxi against the chart.

The F/O (RHS) must acknowledge the taxi instructions, write them in the FMC scratchpad and ensure both pilots understand them.

The Captain (LHS) must write down all taxi instructions & cross check against the aerodrome chart. The F/O (RHS) must progressively monitor the progress of the taxi against the chart during taxi.

The F/O (RHS) must write down all taxi instructions. The Captain (LHS) must crosscheck this. The Captain then progressively monitors the progress of the taxi against the aerodrome chart.

During the climb above FL100 and after the 'Altimeters' call, the PF will call for the '10 checks' which will be actioned by the PM. These will be said out loud in an unobtrusive manner in the following flow:

Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall

Fuel - Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond – Seatbelts

Lights - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall

Lights - APU - Press and Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall

During the climb, how are the ‘Ten Checks’ performed by the PM?

Performed aloud ‘Lights, Fasten Belts, Air Con & Pressurisation, Recall’

Performed aloud ‘Fuel, Lights, APU, Pressurisation & Air Con, Seatbelts, Recall'

Performed silently ‘Lights, APU, seatbelts, Air Con & Pressurisation, Recall’

Performed aloud ‘Air Con & Pressurisation, Recall’

During the Descent and Approach preparation, who is responsible for setting the Vref and the Autobrake setting?

The PM is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting.

The PF is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting having handed over control to the PM.

The CPT is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake prior to commencing the approach briefing (DALTA).

The FO is responsible for setting the Vref and Autobrake setting during DALTA.

During the descent, the '10 checks' are performed aloud by the PM as follows:

Fuel – Lights – Angle of Bank 25° – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Fasten Belts – Recall – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’

Lights – Fasten Belts – Check Air Conditioning and pressurisation – Recall – Bank angle 25o – ANP checks – PA ‘10 minutes to landing’

Fuel - Lights - Press & Air Cond - Seatbelts - Recall

Fuel - Lights - Angle of Bank 25° - Press & Air Cond - Seatbelts -Recall

During the exterior inspection the PM will:

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Leave hold doors open after inspection.

Not check the cargo holds as it’s not a part of exterior inspection.

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds only if doors are opened.

Include a visual inspection of both Cargo Holds. Close hold doors after inspection.

During the flight deck safety inspection and preliminary flight deck procedure, the APU is normally started:

When fuelling is finished

Just prior to closing the L1 door

Immediately when you arrive in the aircraft

Just prior to closing the R1 door

During the pre-flight planning phase, what weather criteria should be used for the destination alternate?

If the destination alternate has a Type B approach then DA/H should be +200ft and RVR/VIS +800M

For a CATIII Approach, use the CAT I minima

If the destination alternate has a Type B approach then DA/H should be +400ft and RVR/VIS +1500M

If the destination alternate has a Type A approach then DA/H should be +200ft and RVR/VIS +800M

During the takeoff roll, the PM checks N1 against target value, checks the engine instruments on the upper DU and any pop-ups on the lower DU. What will be the appropriate callout?

'Throttle Hold'

'Takeoff thrust set, indications normal'

'Indications normal'

Nothing

During your walk around you see a missing security seal. Which of the following statements is true?

Replace the seal on the commander’s authority.

You must obtain a new security seal from the crew room.

The requirement to check for missing seals is now removed from the exterior inspection procedure.

Contact Maintrol or get an on duty engineer to replace the seal.

May the Electric Hydraulic pumps be switched ON while refuelling is in progress?

Sometimes

Only when the Bypass Pin is installed

Yes

Engine Start: The PF calls, ‘Monitor Number__’...

after the Start Valve Open light extinguishes and the PM calls ‘Starter cut-out’

as the engine cuts back

once N2 is observed to pass 46% N1

as the Start Switch moves to the OFF position

When are the Start Levers moved to the idle detent during the engine start procedure?

When N2 reaches 20% (only requirement)

When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 20%

When N2 reaches 25% (only requirement)

When N1 rotation is observed and N2 reaches 25% (or max motoring)

When below FL300 during a climb out, crew will reduce rate of climb to 3000 FPM if in excess at 3000 feet to level off, 2000 FPM if in excess at 2000 feet to level-off and 1000 FPM if in excess at 1000 feet to level-off. This restriction will be observed:

Below FL200 when operating in busy TMA’s or high-density traffic areas

At all times. VNAV performance shall be used and monitored if within the above limits

Flight crews can change the rate of climb using VS anytime they wish

According to RVSM regulations

The correct FMC sequence when briefing a SID is:

RTE PAGE 1 and 2 only

RTE PAGE 1 and 2, INIT/REF, LEGS

None of the above

INIT/REF, RTE PAGE 1 and 2, LEGS

Which of the following statements is true regarding the Holdover Time?

Hold over time is calculated from RA173 Holdover Tables found in Docunet/Techlog.

Hold over time is calculated from the FCOM tables.

Hold over time is calculated from the table in Performance Inflight Vol. 1.

Hold over time is provided for generic fluids only.

Which of the following statements is true regarding holding in icing conditions?

With flaps down is allowed only if wing anti-ice is used.

Is not permitted with flaps extended.

Is permitted with flaps extended.

Is not permitted.

How can you improve the Captains visual ‘cut-off angle’ during low visibility approaches?

Use flaps 30 as this greatly improves the cut-off angle

No need for this since Ryanair aircraft have HUD displays

Vertical adjusting pilots seat height up, using flap 40, ensuring crosswind from the right if possible

FO should look outside if possible to aid the Captain, i.e. more eyes looking outside

For how long should the APU be running prior to using it as a bleed air source?

3 mins

2 mins

1 min

It doesn’t matter

How will the cabin-crew notify the flight crew of a fire in the cabin during taxi?

The one who finds will ‘bang’ on the flight deck door.

The No1 will immediately 'ding' the flight-deck via interphone.

The crewmember who first sees the fire goes immediately to the nearest interphone, presses 222, and inform the flight crew.

The one who finds the fire will 'ding' the flight deck via the interphone.

How will the Captain notify the CSS in case of an emergency?

He will press the attendant call button once and unlock the door.

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck immediately' over the PA.

He will press the attendant call button once and use the phrase 'No 1 to the flight deck', over the PA.

Correct He will press the attendant call button three times.

If a conflict occurs between a TCAS RA and an ATC advisory information, which should the PF follow?

Either TCAS or ATC

TCAS

Maintain Visual separation

ATC

If a normal Bleeds ON takeoff is planned,

it should be written on the OFP.

it does NOT need to be mentioned in the takeoff brief.

it needs to be mentioned only on first flight of the day.

it should be mentioned in the takeoff brief.

If an Autoland proceeds normally after 50 ft, what is the F/O (RHS) callout?

'RETARD'

'FLARE'

Nothing until the speed brake deploys

'TOUCHDOWN'

If an automatic switch over to a departure frequency is required after take-off, unless otherwise instructed by ATC, the PM selects the frequency once airborne and...

calls ATC as soon as possible after becoming airborne

calls ATC before reaching 1000 feet AGL

calls ATC after the ‘Flaps up, No lights’ call

calls ATC as specified in NADP1 or NADP2.

If APU operation is required on the ground and the aircraft buses are powered by AC electrical power, then:

All 6 fuel pumps are required to be position on

An AC powered fuel pump from left side of fuel manifold should be ON

An AC powered fuel pump from right side of fuel manifold should be ON

No fuel pump is required as it will suction feed fuel from the main tank

If conducting a NADP 1 departure and a SID requires a 2500ft QNH level off, when it is acceptable to accelerate?

1000ft prior to level off

at ‘ALT HOLD’ only

Only accelerate once cleared to climb above 3000ft agl

at ‘ALT ACQ’

If remote de-icing is required, which of the following crew actions are mandatory?

If a tactile check is required, the engines must be shutdown.

You can check with the local de-icing provider and if they are happy, it’s allowed to complete a tactile check with the engines running.

You must always shut the engines down to de-ice remotely.

It is permitted to de-ice with engines running and have a tactile check in all circumstances.

If ground accumulated fan blade icing is discovered during the walk around, by which means should it be removed?

By using any de-icing fluids

By using hot water

By using hot air or approved de-icing fluid (licensed aircraft Engineer only for latter)

By using cold water

Which of the following statements is true regarding published Emergency Turn Procedure?

It is used to quickly return for a landing at the airfield of departure.

It is used by ATC for routing you away from high terrain in the event of an engine failure after take-off.

It must be completed, instead of flying straight ahead following an engine failure on take-off.

It is not required to be completed if on a SID.

In case of an APU fire, which of the following statements is true?

The PF calls for the memory items.

The CPT calls for the APU fire NNC.

The CPT only calls for memory items.

The PM calls for the memory items.

In the cruise, if speed drops below the top of the lower amber band, how should you immediately increase the speed?

By reducing bank angle to 10 degrees and descend

By reducing bank angle if above FL300, increasing thrust to MCT and descend

By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT and/or descend

By reducing bank angle and/or increasing thrust to MCT. Do not descend

What should one do in the event of a ‘Engine Failure’ on Take-off?

Follow the SID.

Always climb straight ahead.

Climb straight ahead unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’ and inform ATC.

Follow the SID unless there is an ‘Emergency Turn’.

Which of the following statements is true regarding Low Drag Non-Precision Approaches?

Are not permitted in conjunction with a Continuous Descent Approach (CDA)

Are not permitted for night time approaches

Are not normally applicable to V/S NPA

Are permitted in Class A, B, C, & D airspace only

What is the maximum ground speed whilst taxiing on a contaminated taxiway?

10 knots in a straight line and 5 knots around corners

15 knots in a straight line and 10 knots around corners

Which of the following statements is true regarding night time circle to land manoeuvres?

Are not subject to a ‘Double Briefing’.

Are not subject to the ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1).

Are prohibited.

Are permitted provided a visual slope indicator or electronic slope indicator is operational on the landing runway.

On the ground, prior to switching on the hydraulic pumps, which of the following should be considered?

Personnel are clear of the tow bar or the bypass pin has been installed

Personnel are clear of the tow bar and the bypass pin has been installed

There is no requirement to check anything before switching the hydraulic pumps ON

The ‘A’ system should never be pressurised if a pushback is required

Where do P-RNAV arrivals terminate at?

Glideslope intercept point

Final Approach Waypoint

Final Approach Fix

Initial Approach Fix

During the pre-flight procedure, prior to first flight, who checks the Ships Library?

The PM

The Captain

The PF

The Engineer

How is the instrument crosscheck performed during the pre-flight procedure?

The PM calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PF follows silently

PF reads and PM responds check to Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments

The PF reads Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD, Nav Aid-Idents and standby instruments

The PF calls Time (UTC), QNH, Altimeter, MFRA, FD and standby instruments. PM follows silently

Who is responsible for mentioning what the crew will reject the takeoff for during the initial emergency briefing?

The F/O

The PM

The CPT

The PF

What should the F/O call, prior to taxi?

‘Clear’

Nothing

‘Clear right’

‘Ground equipment clear right’

Regarding re-fuelling supervisor duties, which of the following is true when using RFS Procedure B?

Two way communication should be established and maintained during the refuelling operation between the Qualified Person and the Refuelling Supervisor.

Contact must be established at start but no further communication is required.

There is no requirement to make contact with the flight deck.

The refueller is responsible for when using RFS Procedure B.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the IRS alignment?

A full realignment is only required after a flight time of 2 hours or greater.

A full alignment is only required for the first flight of each duty period.

Fast realignments are not permitted except in extreme wind conditions.

A full alignment is required on each turnaround.

Runway conditions permitting, which is the normal autobrake setting to be used for landing?

The setting is as determined by the crew having consulted the QRH (PI section) or using the OPT.

Two (2)

One (1)

Three (3)

What cool down period do Ryanair and CFM recommend for the engine hot section thermo-stabilisation?

Three minutes

Two minutes

30 seconds

1 minute

Self-manoeuvring at night below the MSA is

Prohibited

Allowed only if one is fully stabilised at 500 feet AAL

Allowed only if one is fully stabilised at 1,000 feet AAL

Allowed once the landing lights are operational

Should the PF check the landing gear lights on the aft overhead panel during pre-flight preparations?

YES

Not if the lights on the forward panel are operating correctly

There are no Landing Gear Lights on the Aft Overhead Panel

The 500 ft call on an ILS approach is:

“Five hundred feet” (PM), “Passing 500, Check” (PF)

“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PM), “Check” (PF)

“Five hundred continue/go-around” (PF), “Check” (PM)

“Five hundred feet” (PF), “Check, passing XXXX” (PM)

The After T/O checks are:

A totally silent checklist called for by the PF after “Flaps up no light”

A normal challenge and response checklist

Done silently, except for “Air Conditioning & Press” which is called aloud & the “Altimeters” check, which is challenge & response

Performed immediately after N1 annunciation on FMA

The Approach Aids scan flow (FRISC) check is?

NDB, VOR/ILS, ADF, VOR X3 and SBY’s

Frequencies, Rings, Idents, SBY’s instruments and Courses

Clock, QNH, Altimeter, MFRA and F/D’s

Idents, Frequencies, Rings. SBY’s instruments

The Audio Switch to I/C for Hot mike usage is required:

For obtaining the ATC departure clearance

From entering the flight deck at the start of the duty

For pushback

After pushback and prior to obtaining taxi clearance. It shall remain ON until completion of the TEN Checks Climbing, after which it will remain crew discretion to either turn the I/C On or Off and shall be on prior to the Descent checks and remains On for the remainder of the flight until Park Brake set at stand

The Autobrake performance is designed to:

Apply auto brakes passing through 80kts

To only use the amount of wheel braking required to achieve the selected deceleration rate

Stop the aircraft in the shortest distance

The use of autobrake is prohibited with a crosswind exceeding 15 knots

The Boeing OPT is:

Is the default performance calculation application

Only to be used as a backup if RTOW charts are unavailable

Can’t be used to reflect runway length changes issued via NOTAM

Can’t be used for contaminated runway calculations

The Cabin Crew must be advised of refuelling when passengers are?

Embarking or disembarking only

Embarking only

There is no requirement to advice the Cabin Crew

Embarking, disembarking or on board

The check of the intermittent warning horn (TO Configuration) is

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is only done by the Captain

Done during the pre-flight for the first flight only by the PF

Done during the pre-flight for the first flight only by the Captain

Done during the pre-flight checks for all flights as part of the ‘Speedbrake’ check. It is done by the PF

The circuit breaker panel located behind the Capt. seat is referred to as:

The P-12 Panel

The P-18 Panel

The P-6 Panel

The P-3 Panel

The company approved minimum RVR for a CAT I approach is?

300/125/125

800/550/550

550/125/75

550/550/550

The correct point to select Landing Gear Down and Flap 15 on a VS NPA is?

VMC: 6nm prior to RWxx

VMC: 4nm prior to RWxx

IMC: 6nm prior to RWxx

5nm prior to RWxx

The earliest point that flap retraction from F15 to F5 may be commenced on a two engine Missed Approach is?

400ft

1000ft

1500ft

800ft

The Enhanced GPWS will issue an automatic 500ft aural call at

500 feet Radio Altitude on all approaches

500 feet Pressure Altitude on all approaches

500 feet Radio Altitude only on an approach that has a Glideslope

500 feet Radio Altitude on an approach that has NO Glideslope

The First Officer will commence the “Before Takeoff” checks when:

As soon as the FO finds it appropriate regarding obstacles and ground traffic

The CPT turns taxi and turnoff lights to ON

When the aircraft starts moving

The CPT asks for the “Before Takeoff checklist”

The following information should be given to ATC on contact with the first radar controller:

Full call sign, SID or cleared routing/heading, passing altitude/FL, Cleared altitude/FL

Full call sign, Passing altitude/FL only

Full call sign, cleared routing/heading only

Full call sign only

The following is the correct manoeuvre for a TCAS RA (Resolution Advisory)

If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD

If manoeuvring is required disengage autopilot and auto-throttle and fly inside the red area on the PFD

Use the MCP panel, as necessary, with autopilot and auto-throttle engaged to establish the correct path

If manoeuvring is required disengage the autopilot only and follow the correct manoeuvre as depicted on the PFD

The formula that may be used to calculate the additional trip fuel burn when ATOW exceeds FPL TOW on non-tankering sectors is:

4% of the additional fuel carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours

2.5% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours.

3.5% of the additional fuel carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours

1% of the additional weight carried in kg, multiplied by the flight time in hours.

The frequency 121.50 MHz must be monitored

On VHF 1 when cleared to cruise level

As part of the Ten Checks

Approaching an FIR boundary

On VHF 2 when cleared to cruise level

The IFE Switch on the overhead panel is normally left

OFF, as it is not connected to any system

OFF, as long as Galley Power is not required

ON inflight and OFF on the ground

ON, the IFE Switch is always turned ON as part of the pre-flight procedure

The initial welcoming PA to passengers:

Should be done by the Pilot Non Flying (PM) prior to pushback

Should be done by the Pilot Flying (PF) prior to pushback

Should be done by the Captain prior to pushback

Should be done by the First Officer prior to pushback

The landing gate for a circling approach is 300ft AAL. What must be established by 500ft AAL on a circling approach?

None of the above as the landing gate is 300ft AAL

Lateral path and landing configuration

Vertical path and landing configuration

Landing configuration only

The maximum allowed crosswind component (winglet aircraft) for takeoff on a slush/standing water runway is:

33 knots

15 knots

25 knots

30 knots

The maximum approach speed additive is:

Vref +5 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

Vref +15 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

Vref +25 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

Vref +7 or landing flaps placard speed – 5kts

The maximum crosswind component on a CATII/IIIA Approach is?

25kts

10kts

20kts

5kts

The Maximum crosswind, dry runway, for takeoff and landing a winglet equipped aircraft is:

The maximum tailwind component on a CAT II/IIIA Autoland is?

The Maximum taxi speed on the apron in dry conditions is:

The minimum flap retraction altitude (MFRA) is:

3000ft AGL

1500ft AGL

Found on the respective runway RTOW plate or OPT data

1000ft AGL

The minimum OIL QTY for dispatch is?

14 QTS

15 LITRES

12 LITRES

13 QTS

The minimum visual reference required to safely continue an approach below DA/MDA is at least:

Runway end lights

Sequencing flashing lights (SFL’s)

Taxiway lights

Elements of the approach light system including at least two cross bars

The NAV lights should be ON:

Only during darkness

Whenever AC power is connected to the airplane busses

30 mins before sunset to 30 mins after sunrise

Before crossing an active runway, thereafter turned off

The PF completes the ‘Before Taxi’ scan flow and BLANKS the lower display completely by pushing the MFD

This is correct as the ‘Pop up’ feature will reveal the lower display in case of an exceedance or Engine failure

This is not correct as engine parameters will not be visible for the takeoff roll making an exceedance impossible to spot

This is correct as it will always bring up the ‘Compact Engine Display’ on the Upper DU

This is not correct as all engine parameters must be monitored for takeoff and flight

The PRE-FLIGHT instrument scan is which of the following?

Time, Alt, QNH, HDG and FLAGS

Time, Speed, Alt, QNH, HDG, VSI and FLAGS

Time, QNH, ALT, MFRA, FD’s & SBY instruments

Time, FMA, V2, MFRA, VSI, HDG, FLAGS & SBY instruments

The rear hold is checked, as part of the Exterior Inspection, by:

The Dispatcher

The captain

the PF

The PM

The rudder trim function is checked during?

On first flights of the day only

On all flights

Not required unless ETOPS sector

All first flight of the day for each operating crew

The Ryanair policy is to use ‘Maximum Assumed Temperature Reduction’ Take-off thrust?

Except when there is an Emergency Turn for the runway

Only when necessary for noise abatement profiles

Always

Wherever permitted by OPT or SOP’s

The standard call in the event of a ‘Passenger Evacuation’ is

‘‘This is your Captain speaking, evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’’. This call is to be repeated once

‘‘This is your Captain speaking, evacuate the aircraft using right /left emergency exits only’’. This call is to be repeated once

“This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using all available exits’’. This call is to be repeated once

‘‘This is an Emergency. Evacuate the aircraft using right/left emergency exits only’’. This call is to be repeated once

The standard callout at V1 when taking off on a wet runway is?

V1 Wet

Continue

WET V1

The standard FMC fuel cost index is?

As per flight plan

The taxi briefing on departure must always include:

A review of the aircraft ‘Go around’ procedure

A review of the ‘Passenger Evacuation’ drill

A review of the expected taxi routing at the destination

A review of the expected taxi routing to the runway of departure

The TCAS OFF flag must always be called as part of the Preflight, Instrument Cross Check?

True, called by the PM

No. It is normally indicating at this point

True, called by the PF

False, this is an EGPWS call

The V1 aural call on take-off must

Be complete by V1

Be commenced at V1

Responded to by the Pilot Flying (PF) with a ‘Check’ call

Be made by the Pilot Flying (PF)

The ‘External Inspection’ (walk around) should be done by the:

Pilot Flying for the next sector

Pilot Monitoring for the next sector

Captain

The ‘FLT ALT’ Selector on the pressurisation panel is set to

To the filed level or lower if performance limited or ATC level capped

To the level closest to the Optimum recommended level as given by the FMC

To the level that will give the highest TAS

Whatever you think is a good level

The ‘Immediate Level off Procedure’ is?

Reset MCP altitude, engage ‘LVL CHG’

‘ALT HOLD’, reset MCP altitude, engage Vertical Speed.

Captain becomes PF, disengages Autopilot and levels off. Re-engage A/P.

‘ALT HOLD’, reset MCP altitude, engage ‘LVL CHG’

The ‘Landing Gate’ for an IMC approach (Precision or Non Precision) is?

FAF

5NM

1000ft

500ft

The ‘Landing Gate’ requires one to be fully stabilised

With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet (all approaches)

With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (IMC)

With all checklists complete at 500 feet (all approaches)

With all checklists complete at 1,000 feet, except landing lights (VMC)

The ‘Outer Marker’ call on approach is

“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PF challenge) : Altitude Checks, No Flags” (PM response)

“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PF challenge) “Check, No Flags” (PM response)

“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PM challenge) “Outer Marker Checks, No Flags” (PF response)

“Outer Marker, XXXX feet, No Flags” (PM challenge), “Altitude Checks, No Flags” (PF response)

The “Post Treatment Check” (step 3), as a part of the de -icing/ anti-icing procedure (Ops Manual Part A):

Has to be supervised by the commander

Can be done visually from within the cabin

Has to be done by the handling agent or engineer and may include a post treatment tactile check

Does not need to be completed if icing is only present within the “boxed” areas of the wings

There is a small amount (1.5mm) of CSFF (Cold Soaked Fuel Frost) on top of the wing behind the engine mount. The CSFF is not completely contained within the black painted lines. Which statement is correct?

This is not acceptable for takeoff, remove before departure

This is acceptable for departure

This is acceptable, provided it is not significantly over the black painted lines

Wait and allow for the CSFF to melt

The maximum addition to Vref is?

To avoid exceeding flap limit speeds on the approach the maximum approach speed additive is?

To determine the actual tailwind component is within limits for landing:

Use the tower reported wind

Use the wind shown on the ND

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on APPROACH REF Page

Use FMC tailwind component as shown on PROGRESS Page 3

Turbulence is encountered in flight. The Captain will decide whether to switch ON the seatbelt signs. Which pilot is responsible for actually moving the sign from AUTO to ON?

The First Officer

The PF as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

The PM as this is defined as his area of responsibility in flight

The Captain

Unless stated, the lowest turning altitude on departure is?

50 ft AAL

1000 ft AAL

400 ft AAL

60 ft AAL

Visual Approaches are

Required to be manually flown

Considered Non Precision Approaches and therefore require a Double Briefing. The ‘Ten Mile Rule’ (Flaps 1) also applies.

Required to be fully stabilised at 1,000 AAL

Required to be flown by the Captain only

What altitude should be set on the MCP prior to ATC clearance being received?

Expected SID clearance limit

Expected SID plus 1100ft

Expected SID plus 100ft

Expected SID minus 100ft

What are the planning minima for a destination airport with an ILS approach available?

The met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above the actual ILS minima

The met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above actual ILS minima

For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that both the RVR/visibility and ceiling, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima

For a CAT II/III ILS destination the met report or forecast must indicate that the RVR/visibility only, ±1 hour of ETA, will be at or above CAT I ILS minima

What documentation should be retained in the flight envelope at end of duty?

Loadsheets, Company NOTAMS containing Crew alerts and Crew Bulletins, weather, fuel receipts, SAFA inspection forms

Operational Flight Plans, notice to crew for dangerous goods (if any), fuel receipts, de-icing documents, SAFA inspection forms

Loadsheets, Operational Flight Plans, Notice to crew for dangerous goods (if any), NOTAMS, fuel receipts, de-icing documents, SAFA inspection forms

The Flight Envelope is no longer in use.

What does two-step de-icing mean?

The aeroplane Tailplane surfaces are de-iced first followed by the wing surfaces

The aeroplane is first anti-iced using a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the anti-icing operation a layer of de-icing/anti-icing fluid is to be sprayed over the wing surfaces

The aeroplane is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is to be sprayed over the aeroplane surfaces

The aeroplane is first de-iced using Type II Fluid only. After completion of the de-icing operation a layer Type IV fluid is to be sprayed over the aeroplane surfaces

What effect on CATIIIA (CAT3A) landing minima does failed or downgraded equipment, causing the lack of Midpoint or Stop End RVR (Part A, Chapter 8)?

No effect

Landing in DAY conditions only

The minimum TDZ RVR must increase by a factor of 10% prior to starting the approach

Is not permitted for LVO landings

What HDG should be selected on the MCP for take-offs?

Runway HDG

The first heading expected on the SID

The expected HDG allowing for drift

It doesn’t matter which HDG is selected if LNAV will be used

What is meant by 'fail passive' automatic landing system?

If a pilot becomes incapacitated the approach can be continued

If the ILS fails, you can use GPS to remain on the profile

In the event of autopilot failure, the operation may be continued utilizing the remainder of the system

In the event of a failure, autopilot disengagement causes no significant deviation of trim, flight path or attitude

What is normal during pushback and engine-start?

The CPT handles ground communications and the PF starts the engines all the time

The CPT handles ground communications and the FO starts the engines all the time

The CPT handles ground communications and starts the engines all the time

The CPT handles ground communications and the PM starts the engines all the time

What is the correct response after thrust reverser deployment on landing roll out, both indications green?

Reversers Normal

Two Reversers Active

Reversers Abnormal

Nothing is called out

What is the correct sequence of actions during a go-around?

TOGA, Flaps 15, Gear up, G/A thrust

TOGA, Flaps 15, G/A thrust, Gear up

TOGA, Gear Up, G/A thrust, Flaps 15

TOGA, Gear Up, Flaps 15, G/A thrust

What is the earliest height that Standard (1013hPa) may be set on climb out?

When passing 3000ft on the altimeter

As soon as you are cleared to a FL by ATC

Passing the Transition Altitude

When the aircraft is above 3000ft AAL and when cleared to a FL

What is the earliest point at which the Autopilot may be engaged on NADP2 departure?

158 ft Minimum Use Height

After the ‘Flaps Up, No Lt’ call

1,000 ft AAL

800 ft as the thrust mode annunciates ARM

What is the latest point at which the autopilot has to be disengaged on a NPA using VNAV?

At 400ft

At MDA

At 158ft or E/D

At 1000ft

What is the latest point to select flap one (1) on all approach?

10 nm from RW xx point

10 nm from FAF

2 nm from start of descend

10 nm from start of descend

What is the normal landing flap setting for the Boeing 737?

30 & 40

10 & 15

25 & 40

There is no policy for this

What is the planning minima for a destination alternate with a Type B Approach?

Minima from the Approach Chart

DA/H +200ft

MDA/H +800ft

DA/H +400ft

What is the signal to the Cabin Crew that it is safe for them to move around and get off oxygen after an emergency descent?

“No.1 to the Flight Deck” over the PA and a ding on the cabin ATTEND button

Fasten belts OFF

“Situation normal” over the PA

“Cabin crew take your masks off” over the PA

What is the standard callout by the PF after he hears, ‘Flaps Up, No lights’ during normal operations?

‘Level Change’

‘Level Change, MCT’

‘Command A’

‘After Takeoff checklist’

What is true after performing a high speed RTO (>80 kts)?

Stop on the runway, the crew must never vacate the runway after an RTO

Another takeoff may be attempted without delay if in the opinion of the Captain the aircraft is fit for flight

Do not take off again until released by Maintrol

The Captain will NOT be required to file an ASR since the OFDM will give all the details required

What minimum level of fire-fighting equipment do we normally require for the B737 800 series aircraft?

What must the PM verify (silently) climbing through FL200, 300 & 400?

Fuel & Time (versus the OFP)

Pilot Incapacitation

Pressurisation is normal

Recall press

What weight must be recorded on the MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section of the load sheet?

The lower of the placard weight (MTOW) or the performance limiting RTOW

The estimated takeoff weight from the OFP

Whichever the Captain decides

There is no MAXIMUM WEIGHT FOR TAKE OFF section on the load sheet

When a crew notices Non Environmental Icing (NEI) on the upper wing surface, which of the following is true?

Must use 2 step de-icing procedure in all circumstances.

Carry a minimum of 2000kg of fuel in the centre tanks.

It might be possible to take off provided you observe and comply with CSFF dispatch relief procedure, otherwise you must deice.

Must fill the main wing tanks, this will melt the CSFF.

When a T/O Alternate is required, the planned alternate should be based on one hour flight time at the one engine inoperative cruise speed according to the AFM, in still air the distance is:

427 nm

410 nm

310 nm

250 nm

When an airplane is anti-iced and a longer holdover time is needed, the crew should consider:

Using 100% hot water for the second step

Backpack de-icing

Using Type I fluid instead of a Type II or a Type IV

Using a less diluted Type II or Type IV fluid

When cleared to a FL what is the standard callout and by whom?

PF ‘Set STD, and PM calling passing XXX for XXX

PF ‘Set STD, passing XXX, climbing XXX’

PM ‘Set STD, passing XXX

PM ‘Set STD’

When cleared to an altitude during an approach (no delay anticipated) the following standard call applies?

QNH, ALT, VSI, HDG, SPD

QNH ___ set, once, twice, three times, (No) flags, Standby Altimeter set

SET QNH ___, passing XXXX descending XXXX, (No) Flags, Standby Altimeter Set

When cleared to climb above transition altitude, and the aircraft is above 3000 feet AGL, both pilots will set their altimeters to Std. When is the standby altimeter set to Standard?

When passing Transition Altitude

Never, as the standby altimeter is used for QFE reference

When climbing through MSA

As part of the “Ten-Checks”

When completing the tech log fuel section, what is the standard fuel density used according to RYR procedures?

0.8

0.78

0.81

0.79

When conducting a CATIIIA (CAT3a) approach in daytime with a RVR of 400 m, if the TWR reports the TDZ lights have failed. The best course of action is to:

Go around and check the effect on landing minima.

Check if the traffic ahead was visual before minima and continue.

Ask PM to immediately confirm the effect on landing minima.

Ask the tower to check if you are allowed to land

When do the pilots need to do a Takeoff Emergency brief?

Only needed when there is an ET

ach pilot on their first flight of the day as PF

Only at unfamiliar Airports

Not required at a pilot’s base

When do we have to adjust all published altitudes using the Altimeter Cold Temperature Corrections chart on the Winter Ops checklist?

Never as the altimeters are corrected for low temperature already

Below corrected MSA when the surface temperature is at or below 0 degrees Celsius.

Only if using the standby altimeter

Only when the temperature if below -10c or the minimum listed on the approach chart if lower

When does a Ryanair flight declare a fuel “Mayday”?

Only on a diversion to an alternate field

Ryanair never declares a “Mayday” for fuel emergencies

When the calculated fuel on the arrival will be less than final reserve

When the calculated fuel on arrival will be less than final reserve & alternate

When flying in severe turbulence:

Turn 180 degrees around to escape the area of turbulence as quickly as possible.

Do not use ALT HLD, use CWS

Try to keep the target speed as accurately as possible

Try to keep the assigned level/Altitude

When hearing the EGPWS ‘minimums’ call on a NPA using V/S with no visual contact having been confirmed:

The PM set the MAA and then take control to perform the GA

The CPT will always take control.

The F/O will set the MAA and commence the G/A immediately

The PF will push TO/GA and call "Go-around, flap 15" etc.

When is a go around below 500ft mandatory during a low visibility approach?

There is no need to Go Around since the aircraft flies and lands automatically

When the RVR’s drop below minimum required

When Pilot incapacitation is suspected

When the rate of descent is greater than 800 FPM.

When operating in freezing conditions and taxiing for takeoff on surfaces covered with slush and/or standing water:

Recycle the ailerons three times in either direction

Taxi as fast as possible to increase aerodynamic steering capability

Delay flap selection until reaching the holding position

Always do a static run up of the engines to 90% N1 for 30 seconds

When operating the Speedbrake in flight, which pilot selects the Speedbrake?

The PF. He / She also stows it

The PM, but the PF stows it when it is no longer needed

The Captain who must hold the handle until it is no longer required

The FO who must hold the handle until it is no longer required

When performing a cross bleed start, when do you disconnect the ground power:

As stated in the supplementary procedures SP 7.4

At starter cut out of the number 2 engine

Before you start the first engine

You can commence aircraft pushback with the ground power attached

When performing a cross bleed start, where is the information to complete this procedure:

Supplementary procedures SP 7.5

Handy Dandy

FCOM

Back of the normal checklist

When performing a NPA using VNAV, at what point does the PM call “Approaching Descent”

2nm before the OM

2nm before the nominated descent point

2nm before the FAF, always

2nm before the IAF

When selecting a Takeoff alternate which criteria must be fulfilled?

The T/O alternate must be within 427nm in still air

When the T/O alternate has been decided, the Base CPT. must be notified

The T/O alternate must be within 30 minutes from the departure airport

T/O alternate must be a Ryanair destination

When should PF “Bug Up” on a normal NADP2 departure?

3000’ AGL or ALT ACQ, whichever is later

MFRA

3000’ AGL or ALT ACQ, whichever is earlier

1,000ft AAL

When should the EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS be armed?

As part of the Cockpit Procedure – Captain

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PF

As part of the Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure – PM

During the rainbow scan

When should the LOGO lights be ON?

At night below FL100

Never

At night

During ground operations only

When should the recirculation fan switches be turned off?

During the shutdown procedure

During the taxi-in procedure

Never, unless following a QRH procedure

Anytime at the crew’s discretion

When starting the engines during cold weather operations, which of the following is not true?

If the engine has been cold-soaked for one or more hours at ambient temperatures less than -40 C, you must contact maintenance.

If the ambient temperature is below -35 C, you must idle the engine for 2 minutes before changing thrust lever position.

All of the above statements are correct

Several minutes may be needed for oil pressure to reach the normal operating range. During this period, oil pressure may go above the normal range and the OIL FILTER BYPASS light may illuminate. Operate the engine at idle thrust until oil pressure returns to the normal range.

When starting the engines, the first step is:

Plan to start engines as quickly as possible to minimum push back time

Only start engines after the pushback is completed

Announce engine start sequence. Plan to start engines to result in minimum fuel consumption

There is no requirement to announce engine start sequence

When tankering fuel?

Always tanker when returning to the same airport as departure

The crew have no limitations to tanker fuel on the B737-800

You can tanker a maximum of 10 Tons of fuel on any given flight.

The Lido flight planning system is designed to optimise the use of tanker and will advise the crew of any tanker requirements

When the engine is shutdown and the chocks are in place. Normal procedure requires the flight crew:

To release Parking Brake on stand even without chocks

Do not set the Parking Brake until the brakes have been checked

After excessive braking, to release the Parking Brake for 5-6 seconds, then re-set

To release the Parking Brake provided that company procedures are followed

Which of the following is true when setting the FMC for a visual approach if no existing procedure exists?

A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold, no hard altitude is required.

A pilot should generate an RX point at least 5.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude

A pilot should generate an RX point at 4.0nm from the runway threshold and make this a hard altitude.

A pilot should generate an RX point at least 6.0nm from the runway threshold with a hard altitude.

Correct Mark 1 out of 1 Not flaggedFlag question Question text When will the 'MINIMUMS' aural call not sound?

When the FO has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

When minimums on both sides differ

When the Captain has not set his minimums (BARO MINS)

There is no minimums call from the EGPWS

When will the First Officer commence the after landing items/flow?

When clear of the active runway, taxi instructions have been received and the Captain has moved the speedbrake lever down

When decelerating through 60 kts

Once you have decelerated below 80kts.

When the Captain has moved the speedbrake lever down

Where can one find the Ryanair Non-Normal Flight Patterns and Manoeuvres?

FCOM VOL 2

Manoeuvres Section in the QRH

Operations Manual Part A

Unannunciated Checklist Section 0 in the QRH

Where is the stab trim setting visible during the taxi when using the OPT Weight and Balance?

It should be noted from memory

Written on LID next to CALLSIGN

FMC Takeoff Page

Written on paper at the side for reference

Where would you find a table to establish the effects on ‘Landing Minima’ during LVO operations for various runway edge and centre line lighting conditions if inoperative?

Operations Manual Part A, Chapter 8

RTOW preamble

FCOM 2, Chapter 10

FCOM 1, Chapter 10

Where would you find the brake-cooling schedule?

Operations Manual Part A

QRH Performance Inflight Section (Advisory Information)

FCOM Volume 1 Supplementary Procedures

FCOM Volume 2 Chapter 14

Which is correct regarding the ICAO approach ban?

The approach may not be started if weather is below approach minima

If you have passed the IAF, the approach can always be continued even if weather deteriorates below approach minima

An aircraft shall not descent beyond the Outer Marker (OM), or if no OM shall not descend below 1000ft if the RVR/visibility is below limiting value

ATC can decide if you can continue the approach

Which is incorrect when you are planning to travel on the jumpseat?

You should board the aircraft first and take any seat

Be travelling in uniform since you are travelling as passive crew

Make yourself known to the handling agent, flight crew and get the Captains approval

Be in possession of a valid Ryanair ID, have a valid licence and passport

Which is our mandatory climb mode after all MCP Altitude / Flight Level changes?

There is no default mode

VNAV

Level Change (MCP SPD)

Vertical Speed (VS)

Which items will the Captain review as part of the Before Takeoff checklist under ‘Takeoff Briefing’?

Flaps, Trim, Speeds, SID initial altitude, STOP altitude, Emergency Turn and adverse weather

Bleeds, Speeds and SID

Packs, Bleeds, Speeds, SID - including initial turn required, STOP altitude, ET if required and adverse weather

The departure SID only

Which of the following callouts is correct for a CAT II/IIIA autoland?

F/O, ‘___radio, flare armed’

Captain, ‘Passing ___feet, flare armed’

F/O: ‘Passing ___radio, flare armed’

Captain, ‘Passing ___radio’

Which of the following is correct regarding a Special EOSID?

Always Bug Up upon passing the MSA

If there is a speed restriction for the first turn then you should delay bug up until the turn is completed.

Special EOSID's do not have speed restrictions

You should always bug up at MFRA on all Special EOSID's

Which of the following is true regarding Continuous Descent Approaches?

Allowed on a VNAV NPA

Not allowed for CAT III ILS

Allowed for SRA’s

Allowed for V/S NPA

Which of the following is true regarding the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’?

The ‘Emergency Escape Rope’ should be checked for your station only

There is no requirement to check the ‘Emergency Escape Rope’

The ‘Emergency Escape Rope is present. There is no need to check it is actually attached to the flight deck

The ‘Emergency Escape Ropes’ (both) are attached to the flight deck

Which of the following statements is not true with regard to takeoff with CSFF on the upper wing surface?

There is no precipitation or visible moisture and fuel tank temperature is at or above -16c

There are no restrictions as long as the CSFF is within the required markings

Ambient air temperature is at or above 4c

The CSFF on the upper surface of wing is only within the lines defining the permissible CSFF area with no ice or frost on the leading edges or control surfaces

Which pilot calls the OM (challenge) check first?

Nobody, this is a silent check

Auto callout from the EGPWS

Which position should the ISOLATION valve be in for engine start?

AUTO

OPEN

ISOLATE

Which statement is correct if you get a “SINK RATE” GPWS aural CAUTION on approach?

Do nothing, as this is only a caution

An immediate Go-around must be executed

Promptly correct the flight path and continue

Accomplish the windshear escape maneuver

Which statement is correct with regard to tail-strikes

Flaps 1 or Flaps 5 may be used for take-off’s in conjunction with assumed temperature thrust reductions

Flap 5 is the normal departure flap setting and, in addition, when the crosswind component is in excess of 10 kts assumed temperature thrust reduction is not permitted

Where the crosswind component is in excess of 15kts, flaps 1 shall be used for T/O

Where the crosswind component is in excess of 15kts, assumed temperature method shall be used

Which statement is most correct? The runway is wet for departure.

Assumed thrust reduction is not allowed

Neither De-rated, nor assumed thrust reduction are allowable

De-rated takeoff is not allowed

Both De-rated and assumed thrust reduction are allowable

Which statement is true regarding low drag approaches?

Low drag approaches are prohibited on straight in visual approaches

The latest point to call for gear down/flaps 15 during an ILS approach is at 3.5 nm

Low drag approaches are not approved for non-precision approaches

Low drag approaches are approved for single engine operations

Which statement is true regarding Monitored NPA?

At EGPWS call “minimums” with no visual contact a go-around is mandatory

The approach can be flown by either pilot

The Captain can call continue and continue the approach after ALT ACQ, as long as he/she has the required visual references

The First Officer can call continue as soon as he/she has the required visual references

Which statement is true regarding operation above the optimum cruise altitude in LNAV?

The aircraft may be operated safely up to and including maximum altitude indicated in the FMC with prior consideration

Crews should never fly above the optimum altitude

Crews should not fly faster than 10 knots above the minimum manoeuvre speed (lower amber band)

Crews may not fly in heading select above FL300

Which statement is true regarding takeoff flap settings?

A flap 1 departure must be performed by the Captain

Flap 1 departures are prohibited

Flap 15 departures are prohibited

With flap 5 for departure no assumed temperature reduction is allowed

Which statement is true regarding the Flight Director:

The flight director rotation mode should be followed to avoid a tail strike

Flight director cannot be used for guidance during rotation

The flight director has a built in tail strike avoidance function for the flare mode

The flight director should be turned off during take off

Which statement is true regarding the Loadsheet?

The MTOW shall always be the RTOW for the runway of departure

The MLW and RTOW should reflect your regulated (structural or performance limited) weight

The MLW and MTOW are always 65317 and 66990 respectively

The MTOW is always 71990

Which statement is true regarding weather related missed approaches?

A diversion is always mandatory after one weather related missed approach

A second approach after a weather related missed approach should always be commenced

Following two weather related missed approaches, a third approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to double the previously given weather

Following one weather related missed approach, a second approach should only be commenced if weather information indicates an improvement to three times the previously given weather

Which Take Off speeds should be used?

Always the FMC speeds

Always the RTOW/OPT speeds

The lowest speeds of RTOW/OPT and FMC

The RTOW/OPT speeds if the FMC speed differs by more than 1 knot

Which ‘ENGINE START IGN’ selection should be made for engine start?

Position right for every start at a manned Ryanair base

Position right when operating through a manned maintenance base for the first flight of the day and alternate thereafter

Position left for operating through a manned maintenance base

Position ‘both’ only for all flights

Whilst flying in RVSM airspace if you have a difference between the Captain’s and F/O’s altimeters of 180ft

You split the difference and use the ALT HLD mode to control the airplane’s flight path

You follow the indications of the altimeter showing the lowest FL

You are not allowed to continue your flight and have to divert

You follow the indications of the altimeter showing the highest FL

Who checks the engine parameters i.e. OIL QTY etc. prior to engine start up?

PM, during Flight Deck Preparation

Nobody, since these values are monitored by the EEC’s

The CAPT during the cockpit safety inspection

PF, during Flight Deck Preparation

Who checks the PA system from the Flight Deck and when?

The CSA

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

The PM during Preliminary Flight Deck Preparation

Not required as Ryanair procedure

Who checks the “Takeoff CONFIG” warning and when?

The Captain ONLY

The First Officer ONLY

The PF during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure

The PM during Preliminary Flight Deck Procedure

Who completes the Light Test pre-flight?

Engineer

The Captain

Who enters the Zero-fuel weight into the FMC during the Final CDU Preflight?

The Captain

The PF

The PM

The FO

Who first checks the maintenance status prior to the first flight?

The First Officer

CPT

Who gives the ‘Cabin Crew seats for landing’ call?

Captain

PM, normally around 6nm from touchdown

Nobody

PF, normally around 6nm from touchdown

Wing anti-ice shall be used:

On the ground only when slush or standing water is present

Always on the ground when icing conditions exists unless the aircraft is or will be anti-iced using type II or type IV fluid

Always when de/anti-icing fluid has been applied to the aircraft

Always when icing conditions exists

With a two-step de-ice/anti-icing procedure the holdover time begins with the commencement of?

The takeoff roll

Taxi out for departure

The second (anti-icing) step

You are on ILS CAT I approach with a cloud base of 600ft and visibility of 2000m, what is the latest point to select the landing gear down on approach?

6nm

FAF

5nm

4nm but no later than 3.5nm

You are operating an aircraft with halogen bulbs fitted. Entering the runway, the Fixed Landing lights are placed ON. When are the Retractable lights turned ON?

These are only used for bird avoidance

When cleared for takeoff

When cabin is secure for takeoff

Also when entering the runway

Cruise altitude speed must be:

At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when in LNAV

At least 15 knots above the lower amber band when in LNAV

At least 15 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV

At least 10 knots above the lower amber band when not in LNAV

Which of the following is true regarding when a new loadsheet is required for an LMC (Load Instruction Document not available);

LMC equals 500kg

LMC exceeds 500kg

LMC exceeds 400kg

LMC exceeds 200kg

A full test of the GPWS is carried out by the?

PF, first flight or crew change only

Engineers daily

F/O, first flight or crew change only