Technical quiz

Welcome to your Technical Exam

What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?

Cables and pulleys

DC motor from Hot Battery Bus

Pushrods and cranks

AC motor from Standby Bus

During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?

At starter cutout.

When the engine reaches idle N1.

When the EGT is stabilized.

When the start lever is moved to CUTOFF or the engine reaches idle N2.

If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?

a white arrow above the N1 dial.

a white "X" above the EGT dial.

a magenta "X-BLD" above the N2 dial.

No indication is provided

What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?

The spar fuel shutoff valve and engine fuel shutoff valve both close.

Only the spar fuel shutoff valve closes.

The spar fuel shutoff valve, engine fuel shutoff valve and engine bypass valve all close.

Only the engine fuel shutoff valve closes.

What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?

A red square.

A solid white diamond.

An amber circle.

A hollow white diamond.

Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.

True

False

Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?

Aileron trim is not available with the autopilot engaged.

It repositions the ailerons by using aileron balance tabs.

The amount of trim is indicated on the scale on top of control column with or without autopilot engaged.

If the autopilot is engaged the amount of trim is not indicated on the scale.

With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?

They will deploy only after the Ground Spoilers have deployed.

They will deploy automatically when the Air /Ground system senses ground mode.

The flight spoilers will not deploy unless wheel spin up of 60kts or greater is detected.

They will deploy only when the right main landing gear strut is compressed.

When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?

Removes power from the standby busses.

Incorrect Removes power from the battery bus, switched hot battery bus and standby buses.

Removes power from the battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

Removes power from the battery bus.

During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?

The FMC has disengaged the autothrottles due to excessive N1.

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15 knots.

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Target Speed by more than 10 knots.

VNAV has disengaged at Vmo.

The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?

If the thrust levers are reduced the hard mode is entered and last valid flight conditions will be used for the engine parameters.

You can only enter the hard mode by manually selecting it on the engine control panel.

The soft alternate mode is entered first, using last valid flight condition to define engine parameters.

The EEC's automatically switch into hard mode and the engines might overboost.

The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.

True

False

What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?

The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

The aircraft is within 10 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Climb ( TOC ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.

The aircraft is within 15 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.

If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?

Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil pressure

Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature

Do not take-off

Acceptable, no action is necessary

What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?

363 kg

760 kg

453 kg

No minimum

The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?

Passenger oxygen system is activated

Passenger oxygen quantity is low

Oxygen shutoff valve is ON

Passenger oxygen system pressure is low

The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?

Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat.

Detecting heat above a pre-set value only.

Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value.

Detecting smoke only

Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?

Landing gear retraction is enabled.

Normal landing gear extension is possible with the loss of hydraulic system A.

Manual landing gear extension is possible with landing gear lever in any position.

Normal gear extension is possible if hydraulic system B pressure is available.

Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?

Closes both spar and engine fuel shutoff valves.

Shuts the spar fuel shutoff valve only.

Closes Spar Fuel Shutoff Valve and resets ignition system through EEC.

Closes engine fuel shutoff valve only.

How long should a fast realignment take to complete?

1 minute.

30 seconds.

10 minutes.

5 minutes.

The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?

Ground speed.

Wind speed

Track

Minutes remaining until alignment is complete

What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?

Slat and skew protection during auto-slat operation

Skew detection for LE flaps

Protection from uncommanded motion, for LE devices if two or more slats on one wing move from the commanded position.

LE skew detection for slats 1 through 8.

What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?

VNAV

MCP SPD

CWS P

V/S

Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.

True

False

What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?

Blue call light illuminates and single chime is heard.

The blue master call lights flash and a single chime is heard.

A green call light illuminates and a two-tone chime is heard.

A blue call light flashes and a two-tone chime is heard.

Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?

Engine N1 speed, start lever position.

Engine speed, thrust lever position, air/ground mode status, door open/closed status, DC power.

Engine speed, thrust lever position, right hand main undercarriage leg compressed, door open/closed status.

Engine speed, start lever position, air/ground mode status.

What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?

Closes engine fuel shutoff valve, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure warning light, disables thrust reverser, arms Squib on No1 engine fire bottle, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated to the left to discharge bottle into N01 engine.

Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes inlet valve to both Air Conditioning Packs, trips IDG control relay, arms both Squibs on both on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.

Extinguishes Master Caution and Fire Warning lights, silences Fire Warning Bell, shuts down No1 engine, and discharges No1 Fire Bottle into No1 engine.

Closes engine and spar fuel shutoff valves, closes engine bleed air valve, trips IDG control relay, closes hydraulic fluid shutoff valve and isolates EDP low pressure light, disables thrust reverser, arms one Squib on both engine fire bottles, and allows the DISCH switch to be rotated left or right.

For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?

50 feet.

60 feet.

200 feet.

75 feet.

What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?

The aircraft is within 2.5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.

The aircraft is within 15 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP.

The aircraft is within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent ( TOD ) point without selecting a lower altitude on the MCP

The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?

Forward cargo compartment set to detect smoke only, due to hot air from cabin conditioning system being discharged into forward cargo hold, aft cargo compartment set to detect both smoke and heat.

Detecting heat above a pre-set value only.

Detecting smoke only

Detecting either smoke or heat above a pre-set value.

What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?

Left pack will produce 24 degrees centigrade and right pack will produce 18 degrees centigrade.

The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones.

The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit.

Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?

Only the origin airport is available until passing 60 NM from the origin airport.

Both the origin and destination airport are available.

Only the origin airport is available until passing 120 NM from origin airport.

Only the destination airport is available.

Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?

Inboard spoilers, rudder and thrust reversers.

Alternate brakes, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.

Leading edge devices, rudder, thrust reversers and standby yaw damper.

True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.

True

False

Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?

The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged.

The Captain's inboard and outboard DUs operate until the battery is discharged and the F/Os inboard and outboard DUs operate for a minimum of 5 minutes.

The Captain's inboard and F/Os inboard and outboard displays are inoperative.

Both the Captain's and F/Os DUs remain operative but only DEU No.1 is powered until the battery is discharged.

What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?

Master Caution and FLT CONT light only.

Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights.

STBY RUD ON with no Master Caution.

No indications of automatic operation.

Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?

The Autoslat system drives the slats to the full extended position when the LE slats are in the extend position as the aircraft approaches the stall angle.

The Autoslats are normally powered by hydraulic system A.

The Autoslats are operated electrically in the event that hydraulic system B fails.

The Autoslat system uses the FSEU to protect the slats from excessive air loads.

Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?

On the Aft Overhead panel on the Flight Deck

On the Aft Attendant´s panel

In the external AC power receptacle located on the lower right side of the fuselage.

On the Forward Attendant´s panel

Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?

Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam.

Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.

Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam.

The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?

To tune the Data signal when using VHF3 for Data transmissions.

To increase the range of the VHF receiver.

To set HF sensitivity on the on-side HF receiver.

To reduce noise on the offside VHF receiver.

How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?

The Battery Master Switch can be on or off, but the L1 door must be at least partially open

The Battery Master Switch can be on or off and the L1 door can be shut or partially open

The Battery Master Switch must be on and the L1 door must be at least partially open

The Battery Master Switch must be on and the L1 door can be shut

When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?

When the switch is positioned to OFF.

When the Electric Motor Driven pumps are running.

Normally when the respective engine has been started

What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?

Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well.

Both amber Master Call lights illuminate in the passenger cabin.

Sounds a single chime in the passenger cabin.

Sounds a two-tone chime in the passenger cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.

How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?

It will remain displayed until the imbalance reduces to 91 kgs or less

The fuel pumps should be switched off in the tank with the greatest quantity

It will be displayed when the imbalance is greater than 363 kgs

The centre tank pumps should be switched on

When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?

The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only re-circulated air is provided.

An average temperature for the two cabin zones

The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin.

Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C.

What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?

Maximum braking is applied automatically when thrust levers are retarded to IDLE.

Maximum braking occurs when speed brake is deployed.

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.

Automatic braking when reverse thrust is selected.

If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?

10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to IDLE.

No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.

15 seconds after the air start valve opens.

15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts.

Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?

Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated dim blue.

Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated amber.

Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light extinguished.

Crossfeed VALVE OPEN light illuminated bright blue.

What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?

EGT limit exceedance

A total loss of AC power

If the EEC loses the required signals to operate in Normal Mode

A rapid uncommanded drop in N1

When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?

Only during MASTER CAUTION system recall.

When hydraulic quantity is less than 72% in either system A or B at any time.

When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B in flight or on the ground.

When hydraulic quantity is below 76% in either system A or B on the ground with engines shut down.

How many slats are located on each wing?

Six in total

Four outboard of each engine.

Three outboard of each engine.

Two inboard of each engine.

Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?

Observer can only transmit on VHF-2.

All stations are available to all crewmembers.

Captain can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.

First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?

Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.

Transitions from extinguished to bright.

Transitions from extinguished to dim.

Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.

Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.

True

False

With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?

Pump continues to run and output is diverted to Electric hydraulic pump.

Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.

Pump drive is disconnected.

The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.

True

False

If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce

Full 26K thrust

Manually advancing the thrust levers with Autothrottle engaged will have no effect on N1.

22K thrust

VMCG limited thrust

Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?

Has no particular function.

To hinder flap movement beyond Flaps 15 until gear down is selected.

To hinder inadvertent flap lever movement beyond Flaps 1 and Flaps 15 during a go-around.

To hinder flap movement to the UP position when speed is too low.

In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:

Captain - VHF-2; F/O - VHF-1; Observer VHF-2

All stations will use VHF 1.

Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1

Captain - VHF-1; F/O - VHF-2; Observer - VHF-2

The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.

True

False

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

Switch directly to NAV from ATT position.

Switch to ALIGN position then to NAV.

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.

Switch to OFF position for 1 minute and then to ALIGN.

Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?

Execution of the engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page will change the VNAV speed to drift down speed.

VNAV immediately disengages and can not be re-engaged.

The engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page is information only and the EXEC light will not illuminate.

Execution of the engine out cruise (ENG OUT CRZ) page disengages VNAV.

In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?

MAP, MAP CTR, VOR, APP

MAP CTR, VOR, APP

PLAN, MAP, VOR, APP

All modes

What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?

The display opens up and shows FMC target speed.

The display opens up and shows dashes.

The display opens up and shows 100 kts.

If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?

The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation.

A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack.

The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF.

The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.

Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?

Mach .455

Mach .615

Mach .555

Mach .505

How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?

Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling.

Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.

The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed.

Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light

After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?

V2 plus 20kts.

V2 to V2 plus 20kts.

V2 to V2 plus 15kts.

V2.

Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?

Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Brakes, Autopilot B

Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Landing Gear

Rudder, Ailerons, Autoslats, Trailing Edge Flaps

Rudder, Thrust Reversers, Leading Edge Flaps and Slats

What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?

Attitude and heading information.

Attitude, heading and position.

Attitude information only.

Heading information only

When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?

When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON.

Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.

After a failure of the number 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP

When System A pressure is zero and the landing lever is positioned UP.

During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?

A manual F/D Go-around is available

Automatic A/P Go-around occurs after FLARE armed annunciates.

The A/P Go-around is only available after the second push of the TO/GA switch

An A/P Go-around will automatically engage.

What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?

No standby frequency has been set.

The RTP is being used to tune a HF radio.

The RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with that RTP.

The light has been pushed for 2 seconds, and the RTP is switched off.

Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?

Both GPS sensor units have failed.

A single GPS sensor unit has failed

This is normal for this phase of flight.

Both GPS sensor units and IRS Left have failed.

At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?

They will not disengage.

350 feet RA.

50 feet RA.

500 feet RA.

The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.

True

False

Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?

EMER

NORM

100%

NORM at high cabin altitudes

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?

GA : LNAV : MCP SPD

MCP SPD : (blank) : GA

N1 : VOR/LOC : TO/GA

LNAV armed (white) : TO/GA

How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground with parking brake is released.

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is in flight.

In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?

Loss of AC power will affect the ignition system and therefore create a potential risk of flameout.

When on STBY power the HMU will be unreliable, therefore thrust deterioration might occur at high altitude.

The fuel will be suction fed, which may cause dissolved air released from the fuel to restrict fuel flow in the suction feed line

When on STBY power the fuel pumps run a little slower.

Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?

Flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting.

Flaps UP, Descending through 1000 feet RA, with both thrust levers at IDLE.

There is no horn in the landing gear config system.

Flaps set to 15, both thrust levers set above 34 degrees.

Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?

Audio warnings for altitude alert, GPWS and windshear are not heard.

VHF-2 is the only useable radio.

All ACP transmitter selectors remain functional, but receiver selectors are lost.

The flight interphone remains useable, the PA is lost.

What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?

The traffic is descending at minimum 500fpm.

The traffic is descending at 700fpm.

You should descend at minimum 500fpm.

You should descend at 700fpm.

Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?

Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and engine No.1 RPM drops below a limit value

Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 and System A engine-driven hydraulic pump pressure drops below limits.

Airborne, Flaps not up and engine No.2 RPM drops below a limit value

Airborne, Flaps are less than 15 but not up and SYS B engine-driven hydraulic pump output pressure drops below limits.

What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?

Both amber Master Call lights illuminate in the passenger cabin.

Sounds a horn in the nose wheel well.

Sounds a two-tone chime in the passenger cabin and illuminates both pink master call lights.

Sounds a single chime in the passenger cabin.

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient.

Ensures System A can operate leading edge flaps and slats when System B is lost.

Ensures System A can raise the gear on loss of System B.

Is used to lower the gear on loss of System A.

What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?

The heading and pitch modes will change to HDG SEL and V/S

The autopilot will remain engaged

The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed

The autopilot will only disengage below 2000ft

Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

Maximum pressure of 2800 psi.

Normal precharge of 2800 psi.

Normal precharge of 1200 psi.

Maximum pressure of 3500 psi.

What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?

The packs will attempt to maintain an average temperature across all zones.

The right pack will produce a fixed temperature of 75 degrees Fahrenheit, and the left pack will produce a fixed temperature of 65 degrees Fahrenheit.

Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?

It normally powers the Battery Charger and backs-up TR units 1 and 2 through a diode.

It must be manually opened using the BUS TRANSFER Switch during a Flight Director approach.

It opens to isolate DC bus 1 from DC bus 2 if the BUS TRANSFER Switch is moved to OFF.

It will trip off when AC volts reaches 26 volts (plus or minus 4 volts) as displayed on the AC voltmeter.

When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?

Positioning either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD.

System B fails and flaps are up.

System B fails and wheel speed > 50kts.

The main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor (FFM) trips.

What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?

Ground power is connected and meets aircraft power quality standards

A ground power source is connected.

The ground service bus is powered by a ground power supply

The external power bus is powered by a ground power supply

During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?

Only oil pressure and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.

Only N1, N2, oil quantity indications are available until the engine accelerates to a speed greater than 15% N2.

Only N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration are available prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.

Only round dials are visible for engine indications prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD.

Which bus is always connected to the main battery?

DC Standby Bus

Battery Bus

Switched Hot Battery Bus

Hot Battery Bus

Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?

The fuel quantity digits for main tank No.2 turn amber

This will cause an amber LOW alert below main tank No.1 accompanied by MASTER CAUTION lights and a System Annunciation light for FUEL.

This will cause an amber IMBAL alert below main tank No.1. The fuel quantity digits for the tank also turn amber.

This will cause an amber IMBAL indication below main tank No.1 accompanied by MASTER CAUTION lights and a System Annunciation Light for FUEL

After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?

Immediately.

Up to 30 seconds

195 minutes.

Up to 60 seconds.

What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?

Improves reception of weak signals.

Begins RCP self-test sequence.

Switches on squelch.

Plays an audio test track through the flightdeck speaker.

When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?

Number 1 engine RPM drops below limit value, with either main landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned Up.

When the ALTERNATE NOSE WHEEL Switch is positioned ON.

After a failure of the number 1 engine hydraulic pump with the landing gear still down and the landing gear lever is positioned UP

When System A pressure is zero and the landing lever is positioned UP.

Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO

Powers the CVR until first engine start and then trips the switch to ON.

Ensures the CVR is always powered.

Powers both the CVR and the Flight Data Recorder from first engine start.

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?

50 feet RA.

LNAV is manually selected once above 3000 feet with flaps up no lights.

800 feet RA.

Passing 400 feet AGL.

Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?

6 degrees.

10 degrees.

12 degrees.

8 degrees.

During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

Switch directly to NAV from ATT position.

Switch to OFF position for 1 minute and then to ALIGN.

Switch to ALIGN position then to NAV.

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment.

When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?

When TA reaches signal swamp in busy terminal areas.

Below approximately 500ft RA.

Below 1,000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.

With gear down and greater than flap 15.

Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?

TAKEOFF CONFIG warning light

BELOW G/S P - INHIBIT

CABIN ALTITUDE warning light

Lavatory Fire warning light

Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 8000 feet.

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 6000 feet.

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at cabin altitudes above 4000 feet.

Supplies 100% oxygen under positive pressure at all cabin altitude.

What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?

The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF.

The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow.

The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.

The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans.

How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?

20 degrees

5 degrees

10 degrees

15 degrees

Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?

Engine struts, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU duct, keel beam.

Engine cowl lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, electronic equipment bay, APU bleed duct.

Engine cowling lips, wing leading edge slats, air conditioning bays, APU compartment, keel beam.

Engine struts, wing inboard leading edges, air conditioning bays, APU bleed duct, keel beam.

Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?

The system can be checked on the ground.

Can only be checked on the ground with Flaps extended.

Can only be checked after IRS alignment

Can only be checked whilst airborne

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

Ensures that the landing gear can be raised at the normal rate if the output from System A is insufficient.

Ensures System A can operate leading edge flaps and slats when System B is lost.

Ensures System A can raise the gear on loss of System B.

Is used to lower the gear on loss of System A.

Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?

The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.

All LNAV information is lost and waypoints have to be created manually in the temporary navigation database.

The alerting message UNABLE REQD NAV PERF - RNP will appear in the CDU scratchpad.

Both LNAV and VNAV will disengage.

When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?

In the cruise only.

The aircraft is excessively off the flight planned course.

If the entered position is above 72 degrees North or below 72 degrees South

On the ground only, if the position information is sensed as being incorrect.

When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?

If any TR has failed.

When TR1 and TR2 have failed.

When TR1 has failed.

The TR UNIT light only illuminates when the aircraft is on the ground.

When will LNAV automatically disengage?

When HDG SEL is disengaged.

Reaching a route discontinuity.

Upon glideslope capture.

When VNAV is engaged.

Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?

Autobrake action will occur only when thrust reverse is selected.

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.

Autobrakes will arm immediately at any groundspeed.

Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.

Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.

True

False

What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?

Flaps are either up or down and either hydraulic system fails or either elevator pitot system fails, and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance is sensed.

Captain's pitot system fails.

Flaps are not up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System B and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.

Flaps are up and an excessive hydraulic pressure imbalance between hydraulic System A and the Standby hydraulic system is sensed.

Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?

Engine fire bottle discharged

Start lever moved to IDLE.

EEC set to ALTERNATE

Engine fire switch pulled.

With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?

It will never occur.

If N1 is between 59% and 50% and engine start lever is in IDLE.

If ENG ANTI-ICE is selected ON

If a rapid decrease in N2 occurs, or N2 below idle RPM with engine start lever at IDLE.

What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?

Terrain 500 feet below (250 feet with gear down) to 2,000 feet above airplane altitude.

Terrain more than 2,000 feet above Radio altitude.

Terrain 2,000 feet below to 500 feet above (250 feet with gear down) airplane altitude.

Terrain more than 2,000 feet above airplane's current altitude.

With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?

Pump continues to be driven by the engine, but it's output is isolated from the rest of the hydraulic system.

Pump continues to run and output is diverted to Electric hydraulic pump.

Transfers system to ENG 2 pump output.

Pump drive is disconnected.

What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?

Altitude and elevator position.

Airspeed and stabilizer position.

Only System A hydraulic pressure

Elevator balance tabs position

How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?

Only by pushing the Master FIRE WARN light

The fire warning bell is only silenced once the condition causing the Overheat or Fire warning has been removed.

Pushing Master FIRE WARN light or pushing the BELL CUTOUT switch located on the Overheat/Fire Protection panel.

Pushing the Master FIRE WARN light, or pushing the bell mute button located next to the speaker on the flight deck ceiling.

What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?

The remaining pack is capable of maintaining pressurisation and acceptable cabin temperatures up to 41,000 feet.

The remaining pack will not operate in HIGH flow.

The packs will automatically switch off, and cabin temperature is controlled by the mix manifold and the recirculation fans.

The remaining pack when selected to AUTO will be capable of maintaining pressurisation up to aircraft ceiling, only if all Zone Temperature Controllers are selected to OFF.

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

N1 and ARM.

GA and ARM.

THR HLD Only.

THR HLD and ARM.

Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?

The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered by the Battery.

The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered by the Hot Battery Bus.

The Switched Hot Battery Bus is powered by TR 3.

The Switched Hot Battery Bus is not powered.

What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and System A pressure is maintained.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and alternate brakes and steering must be used.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero but system pressure is maintained by the Landing Gear Transfer Unit.

What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?

A green call light illuminates and a two-tone chime is heard.

A blue call light flashes and a two-tone chime is heard.

Blue call light illuminates and single chime is heard.

The blue master call lights flash and a single chime is heard.

When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?

The trim air modulating valves close so no pack air is provided to the two cabin zones, only re-circulated air is provided.

Left pack produces 18 degrees C, right pack produces 22 degrees C.

An average temperature for the two cabin zones.

The flight deck required temperature will also be provided to the passenger cabin.

Which statement is correct:

Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor.

Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.

Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON.

When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?

Only when both FLT CONTROL switches are selected to STBY RUD

Only when the Yaw Damper is selected on

At all times.

What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?

Transitions from extinguished to dim.

Transitions from dim, to bright and then extinguishes.

Transitions from extinguished to bright.

Transitions from extinguished, to bright and then dim.

Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?

The PSU supplies ventilation air not oxygen.

12 minutes.

14 minutes.

It will continue to supply oxygen until cabin altitude descends below 10,000feet.

Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?

Wheel speed greater than 60 knots.

Forward thrust levers positioned to IDLE.

AUTO BRAKE select switch OFF.

AUTOBRAKE switch to MAX.

If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?

Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil pressure

Acceptable, no action is necessary

Do not take-off

Normal, but requires continuous monitoring of the oil temperature

Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?

If the FMC generated QRH V Speeds differ by more than 1kt from the entered OPT calculated V Speeds.

If the MFRA is adjusted before TO/GA is pressed.

After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

OAT has been changed on the TAKEOFF REF page after the V Speeds have been entered.

How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground with parking brake is released.

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is in flight.

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is on ground and parking brake is set.

Pushing the ERASE switch for 2 seconds when the aircraft is in flight and parking brake is set.

Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?

Autobrake action will occur only when both thrust levers are retarded to reverse thrust range.

Autobrakes will initiate if selected prior to decelerating through 30 knots of groundspeed.

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate and autobrake application will not occur.

Autobrakes will arm after decelerating through 60 knots groundspeed.

When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?

When a fault exists in the AC, DC or the standby system.

When a fault exists in the AC or standby power system.

The ELEC light only operates in flight.

When a fault exists in the DC or standby system.

The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).

True

False

Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?

The flight crew manually enter (and periodically update) estimated fuel weight on the FMC PERF INIT page to keep gross weight current and performance data valid.

VNAV disengages.

VNAV operation is not possible.

The scratchpad message: CHECK FMC FUEL QUANTITY is displayed.

How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?

The number is displayed in amber

An amber box is displayed around the number

The number flashes

How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?

120 minutes.

90 minutes.

60 minutes.

180 minutes.

What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?

The Green oxygen pressure relief disc will be found to be missing from the forward right fuselage during then Exterior Inspection.

The flight deck oxy pressure gauge will drop to read 500 psi.

The amber OXY annunciation illuminates on the Aft Overhead Panel.

The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?

A siren.

A voice message "speed".

A clacker.

An intermittent horn.

Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.

True

False

Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO

Powers the CVR from first engine start until 5 minutes after last engine shutdown.

Powers both the CVR and the Flight Data Recorder from first engine start.

Ensures the CVR is always powered.

In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?

All stations will use VHF 1.

Captain - VHF-2; F/O - VHF-1; Observer VHF-2

Captain - VHF-1; F/O VHF-2; Observer - VHF-1

Captain - VHF-1; F/O - VHF-2; Observer - VHF-2

What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?

12.5 Meters.

7.4 Meters.

8.42 Meters.

6.42 Meters.

When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?

Both Center Tank Fuel Pump Switches are turned OFF

The center fuel tank is about 3/4 full and all AC fuel pump switches are selected to ON.

When either engine is operating.

The No. 1 main fuel tank is about 1/2 full and the No. 1 tank FWD pump switch is selected to ON.

What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and System A pressure is maintained.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero but system pressure is maintained by the Landing Gear Transfer Unit.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to zero and all System A pressure is lost.

System A reservoir fluid quantity decreases to approximately 20% full and alternate brakes and steering must be used.

What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?

20.4 Meters

18.6 Meters

24.3 Meters

25.9 Meters

Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?

The control columns are physically separated. The column which is free to move will be able to provide elevator control.

The elevator feel and centring unit will transfer proper aerodynamic forces to the control column.

Applying force against the jam will break out only the captain's control column.

Lighter than normal control forces must be used for take off and landing.

When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?

Select ALT OFF.

Select TCAS OFF.

Select TA/RA.

Select TA.

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?

4.6 Meters of the nose

7.1 Meters of the wing tip

7.4 Meters of the nose

4.6 Meters of the tail

Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?

Hydraulic System B.

Hydraulic System A.

Hydraulic Standby System.

After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?

800 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.

800 feet above Field Elevation.

400 feet Radio Altitude and 18 seconds after lift-off.

What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?

Depressurises the nose wheel braking system, to prevent damage to the tow bar.

Depressurises nose wheel steering allowing pushback or towing without having to depressurise the hydraulic systems.

Isolates Rudder Pedal nose wheel steering, limiting nose wheel steering to the Tiller only.

Depressurises hydraulic system B.

In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?

It receives fuel from main tank No.1 through a suction feed line that bypasses the pumps

It will shut down due to fuel starvation

It receives fuel from main tank No. 2 automatically.

It continues to operate due to the Cross Feed valve automatically opening.

In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?

A CONFIG alert under the centre fuel contents gauge.

The centre tank pump LOW PRESSURE lights will be illuminated.

A fuel LOW alert indication below the centre tank contents gauge.

A CONFIG alert indication under the left and right fuel contents gauges.

What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?

56% N1

56% N2

25% N2

25% N1

If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?

10 seconds on the ground or 30 seconds in flight after the start lever is moved to IDLE.

No automatic shutdown is provided for a wet start.

15 seconds after the start lever is moved to IDLE during ground starts

15 seconds after the air start valve opens.

Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?

MAINT

LOW OIL PRESSURE

OVERSPEED

FAULT

Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?

Dotted amber - terrain 250ft below to 2500ft above the aircraft's current altitude

Solid red - look ahead terrain warning active

Dotted green - terrain from 2500ft below to 500ft below the aircraft's current altitude

Dotted red - terrain more than 5000ft above the aircraft's current altitude

From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?

Common Display System

Weather Radar System

Aural Warning Module

EGPWS

For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?

653 Kgs.

726 Kgs.

553 Kgs.

453 Kgs.

The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.

True

False

How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?

1 fire extinguisher bottle that can only be discharged into forward cargo hold.

2 fire extinguisher bottles, one for forward cargo hold, and one for rear cargo hold.

1 fire extinguisher bottle, that can be selected to be discharged into either cargo hold.

2 fire extinguisher bottles, 1 rapid discharge bottle and one smaller slow discharge bottle.

During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be

Over 32 volts.

Usually more than 28 Volts

Equal to 28 Volts

Less than 28 Volts

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?

Transfer bus 2

AC ground service bus 2

AC ground service bus 1

Transfer bus 1

Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?

Displays center tank fuel only.

Displays wing tank fuel only.

Displays present total fuel remaining, as obtained from the fuel quantity indication system.

Displays total fuel used since engine start, based on fuel flow inputs to the FMC.

Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?

Thrust levers set to idle.

ANTISKID system inoperative.

AUTO BRAKE select switch set to RTO

Wheel speed less than 60 knots.

Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?

LE flaps in the Full Extended position and TE flaps at flaps 15.

Speed brake lever in the DOWN position.

LE flaps in the Full Extended position and TE edge flaps at flaps 5.

Spoilers not down with the speed brake lever in the DOWN position.

What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?

A rapid uncommanded drop in N1

If the EEC loses the required signals to operate in Normal Mode

EGT limit exceedance

A total loss of AC power

In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?

Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine start switches are placed to CONT or FLT.

Flaps are in the landing configuration or engine anti-ice is ON for either engine.

Flaps are in the landing configuration and thrust lever angle is above 34 degrees for either engine.

The aircraft descends below 15,000 feet MSL

If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?

Carry out the test again with the switch selected to FAULT/INOP testing each loop individually with the OVHT DET switch at A then B.

This indication only occurs when BOTH loops have failed.

Carry out the test again one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected to A and then B.

Move to FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE switch to the central TEST position, then test one loop at a time using the OVHT DET switch selected first to A and then B.

Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?

Monitor the VHF radio connected to the lower antenna.

Use the VHF-1 radio for outbound and the VHF-2 radio for inbound flights.

Always use the VHF-1 radio.

Always use the VHF-2 radio.

What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?

100-300 KIAS

100 KIAS - Mach 0.5

158-300 KIAS

With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?

Rudder pedal steering is deactivated once the nosewheel lifts off from the ground.

Rudder pedal steering overrides the nose wheel steering Tiller inputs.

Rudder pedal steering allows 78 degrees of steering in either direction.

Hydraulic System B pressure is bypassed with the lockout pin installed in the steering depressurization valve.

What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate after 5 seconds .

The AUTO BRAKE SELECT switch will move to OFF.

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate.

The AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will not illuminate.

When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?

If the entered position is above 72 degrees North or below 72 degrees South

In the cruise only.

The aircraft is excessively off the flight planned course.

On the ground only, if the position information is sensed as being incorrect.

Which statement is correct:

Bleed air is only supplied from the 9th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 5th stage alone can supply.

Bleed air is constantly provided from stage 5 and stage 9 of the compressor.

Bleed air is provided from the 5th and 9th stage of the compressor whenever the bleed air valve is selected ON.

Bleed air is only supplied from the 5th stage when the valve modulates open if bleed air requirement is greater than the 9th stage alone can supply.

Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?

All stations are available to all crewmembers.

First Officer can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.

Observer can only transmit on VHF-2.

Captain can only transmit and receive on VHF-2.

Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.

Ture

False

Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?

After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.

After passing through the fuel filter.

Before the fuel reaches the HMU.

Before passing through the second stage engine fuel pump.

During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?

The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim, to bright, and then extinguished.

The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from extinguished, to bright, and then dim.

The related SPAR VALVE CLOSED light is unaffected by the engine start lever position.

The related blue SPAR VALVE CLOSED light transitions from dim to extinguished.

Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?

Automatic braking occurs at the MAX level.

Automatic braking action occurs at the RTO level.

AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates 2 seconds after touchdown, and no automatic braking action occurs.

Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?

The standby power control unit supplies TR3

The AC Busses are isolated from the DC busses

DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are connected by the cross bus tie relay

At glideslope capture DC Bus 1 and DC Bus 2 are isolated from each other

What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?

Skid, locked wheel, touchdown and hydroplane.

No protection is provided during alternate brake operation.

Skid, and hydroplane only.

Skid, locked wheel and hydroplane only.

Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?

Standby Yaw Damper is available.

Main and Standby Yaw Dampers are not available.

Standby Yaw Damper functions with "A" FLT CONTROL switch in STDY RUD and Yaw Damper switch ON.

Main Yaw Damper function is available.

When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?

Minimum speed for current flap setting cannot be reached.

The highest of the other three answers

When the speed is equal to or less than 1.3 VS for current flap setting.

FMC speed or selected speed cannot be reached.

At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?

All flap settings except UP.

Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40.

Flaps 30 and 40 only.

All flap settings

What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?

Fire extinguisher circuit test is normal

Fire Switch unlock test satisfactory.

All fire extinguisher bottles are at the required pressure

Fire warning system test completed satisfactorily.

The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?

Trailing edge flaps.

Landing gear.

Outboard spoilers.

Autoslats.

Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?

ADIRU's only.

Anti-ice controls, ADIRUs, alpha vane output, wing configuration, air/ground sensing, thrust and FMC outputs.

FMC, Thrust reverser lever position.

Anti-ice controls only.

How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?

The electric motor driven pump supplies a much greater pressure than the engine driven pump

The engine driven pump supplies a much greater pressure than the electrically driven pump

The engine driven pump output pressure increases with an increase in N1 during the cruise, whereas the electrically driven pump output pressure remains constant

They both should supply the same pressure

What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?

Brake temperature on all four main wheels.

Hydraulic pressure, hydraulic quantity and flight control positions.

Hydraulic pressure and quantity only.

Duct temperatures, cabin temperatures and brake temperatures. Feedback

During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?

When the engine reaches idle N1.

When the start lever is moved to CUTOFF or the engine reaches idle N2.

At starter cutout.

When the EGT is stabilized.

Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?

The Standby Hydraulic System

Neither. They are electrically powered

Hydraulic System A

Normally powered by Hydraulic System B.

During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?

300 feet.

200 feet.

50 feet.

150 feet.

The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?

There are two negative pressure relief valves, which limit the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.

There are two pressure relief valves which limit differential pressure to 9.1 psi.

There is an outflow valve which opens when cabin pressure reaches 9.1 psi above ambient

There is a negative pressure relief valve, which limits the cabin pressure to 9.1 psi above ambient.

Where are the Logo lights installed?

On top of each horizontal stabilizer.

On the left wingtip.

On both wingtips.

Both sides of the fin.

Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?

The expired database continues to be used until the active date is changed after landing.

The alerting message UNABLE REQD NAV PERF - RNP will appear in the CDU scratchpad.

Both LNAV and VNAV will disengage.

All LNAV information is lost and waypoints have to be created manually in the temporary navigation database.

If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?

The standby pack controls command the packs to produce the average temperature demand of the 2 passenger cabin zones.

A fixed cabin temperature will be produced in this situation - 24 degrees C from the left pack, and 18 degrees C from the right pack.

The last settings before the failure will be maintained until the packs are selected OFF.

The cabin temperatures cannot be controlled in this situation.

Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?

Only galley bus A & B are automatically shed.

Only galley bus C & D are automatically shed.

The galley busses are not automatically shed in this situation.

All galley busses are automatically shed.

In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?

Systems A and B

Standby system

System A

System B

After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?

The route will need to be reloaded.

The navigation database never expires.

Unchanged, no action required.

Route discontinuity will be gone, everything else remains the same.

What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?

39.5 Meters

38.0 Meters

34.4 Meters

35.79 Meters

If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?

OAT is above 40 degrees C

No AC power available

Less than 453Kg of fuel in the centre tank

APU fire switch on the overheat/fire panel has been pulled up

Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?

The reverser blocker door is fully stowed.

The reverser sleeve is unlocked.

The thrust reverser is deployed.

The reverse thrust lever has reached detent 2.

If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?

A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.

An overheat indication for System B

No change in System B quantity

System B quantity would decrease to Zero.

How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?

Lavatory Fire warning illuminated on flight deck.

Extinguisher discharge nozzle will have changed colour

Pressure gauge on fire bottle in the green zone.

Fire bottle will have it's "pop-out" indicator exposed.

Discharge indicator panel above lavatory door illuminated.

Steady red light remains illuminated on Lavatory ceiling smoke detector panel after alarm tone has silenced.

How long should a fast realignment take to complete?

5 minutes.

1 minute.

10 minutes.

The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?

On approach passing 1500ft RA and selecting Flaps 30 or greater with any gear not down and locked.

On approach below 800ft RA (but above 200ft RA) with Flap 15 and either thrust lever set greater than 20 degrees thrust lever angle with any gear not down and locked.

Aircraft is descending below 800ft RA (but above 200ft RA) with one gear not down and locked and Flaps 10.

Descending through 800ft barometric altitude, Flaps 5 and one landing gear disagree light illuminated red.

Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the hot battery bus.

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes.

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - if AC power is not normal from the battery bus.

Normally AC Transfer Bus 1 - if AC power is not normal DC power from the switched hot battery bus.

What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?

MCP SPD

CWS P

VNAV

V/S

What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?

The airplane is in partial or full stall.

Encountering turbulence will cause initial buffet.

Flaps need to be retracted because airspeed is greater than Vfe.

Current conditions result in a manoeuvre margin less than specified.

When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?

When fuel quantity data is invalid and estimated fuel weight has to be entered manually.

When fuel quantity data is invalid causing VNAV to disengage.

The FMC has detected an unexpected drop in fuel quantity.

When gross weight is out of limit.

If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?

The battery bus.

DC bus1.

The hot battery bus.

The switched hot battery bus.

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?

The autopilot will disconnect as soon as the failure is detected.

The autopilot will continue to command the aircraft down to minimums.

The autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and G/S capture.

The autopilot will continue as normal.

On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?

The radial and distance from the fix to the airplane, this information will update as the aircraft changes position.

The radial and distance of your next abeam point.

The radial and distance from the airplane to the fix, this is not updated as the airplane changes position.

The radial and distance of the destination field.

Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?

VNAV

APP

LNAV

VOR/LOC

Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?

On panel P18 behind the Captain's seat.

At the flight crew oxygen shut-off valve.

The gauge on the oxygen cylinder.

On the crew oxygen pressure indicator on the aft overhead panel.

What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?

GROSS WT will display box prompts.

GROSS WT will display dashes.

GROSS WT will be flashing.

GROSS WT will be blank

What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?

PROG PAGE 3/3

POS REF page 2/3

POS REF page 3/3

POS REF page 1/3

What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?

Illumination of the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and FLT CONT lights.

No indications of automatic operation.

STBY RUD ON with no Master Caution.

Master Caution and FLT CONT light only.

With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?

Both in the air and on the ground, the AC standby bus is powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus is powered directly from the batteries.

In the air only, the AC standby bus is powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus is powered directly from the batteries.

On the ground only, the AC standby bus is powered from the batteries via the static inverter and the DC standby bus is powered directly from the batteries.

Neither the AC Standby Bus nor the DC Standby Bus is powered in this situation.

What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?

- 43°C.

3°C above the fuel freezing point or -43°C, whichever is higher.

- 49 ºC

3°C below the fuel freezing point or -49°C, whichever is higher.

Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.

True

False

With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?

The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B with manual reversion if system A and B pressure is lost.

The primary flight controls are powered by hydraulic systems A and B, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.

The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system A, with backup from the standby hydraulic system for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.

The secondary flight controls are powered by hydraulic system B, with backup from hydraulic system A for the rudder and manual reversion for the rest if system A and B pressure is lost.

Elevator balance tabs position

The Captain's PFD and the First Officer's ND will operate.

The Captain's PFD and ND will operate.

The First Officer's PFD and ND will operate continuously.

Both the Captain's and First Officer's PFD and ND will operate continuously.

In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?

No, unless the Ram Air Turbine has been deployed

No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic system A.

No, as the brakes are supplied by Hydraulic System B

Yes, the hydraulic power will be supplied by the Brake System Accumulator

What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?

Arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch, activates the standby hydraulic pump and closes the TE flap bypass valve.

Closes the flight spoilers shut off valve.

Fully extends the LE devices using electric motors.

Activates the standby hydraulic pump and pressurizes the standby rudder control unit.

With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?

Is inhibited during Autoslat operation in flight.

Indicates that TE Flaps asymmetry protection is being provided.

Indicates LE Slats are fully extended.

Indicates all LE Devices are fully extended.

Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?

If the FMC generated QRH V Speeds differ by more than 1kt from the entered OPT calculated V Speeds.

After first engine start, if the sensed OAT differs by more than 6 degrees C from the OAT entered on the TAKEOFF REF page.

OAT has been changed on the TAKEOFF REF page after the V Speeds have been entered.

Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?

The ACP at that station is inoperative but the crewmember can communicate on one radio.

The ACP switches to standby ACP and all functions operate normally except PA and interphone.

The ACP switches to an alternate ACP and all functions operate normally and the crewmember can communicate on all radios.

The ACP at that station is inoperative and the crewmember cannot communicate on any radios.

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

To allow the use of alternate nosewheel steering in the event hydraulic system A fails.

To allow landing gear extension if hydraulic system B is lost during takeoff.

To automatically use power from hydraulic system B to assist landing gear retraction to achieve the normal rate of retraction if hydraulic system A engine driven pump pressure falls below a preset value.

To automatically use hydraulic system A for landing gear retraction if hydraulic system B fails at any time.

What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?

Extend limit speed of 270k/.82M maximum.

Extend limit speed, 280k/.72M maximum.

Maintain 235 knots for 20 minutes.

Retract landing gear speed of 245 knots.

How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?

Push the VHF and NAV selector switches.

Set the Filter Switch to B (Both).

Set the MASK-BOOM Switch to BOOM.

When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?

Positioning the AUTO BRAKE select switch to OFF.

Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever to the DOWN detent.

Advancing the forward thrust levers after the first 3 seconds after touchdown.

Applying manual brakes.

In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?

Autothrottle computer.

AFDS.

ADIRU's.

FMC.

If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?

A normal condition

The landing gear configuration warning horn will sound upon landing

A fault is detected in the landing gear locking system or the air/ground sensing system

A problem exists in the PSEU system because this light should be inhibited in flight.

When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?

When the fuel tank quantity is less than 567 kgs in related main tank

When the total amount of fuel, including centre tank, is below 950kgs

When the fuel tank quantity is less than 726 kgs in related main tank

When the fuel tank quantity is less than 453 kgs in related main tank

What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?

The heading and pitch modes will change to HDG SEL and V/S

The autopilot will disengage and/or the F/D bars will be removed

The autopilot will remain engaged

The autopilot will only disengage below 2000ft

The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?

Low pressure (N1)

Both (N1 and N2)

The fan driveshaft

High pressure (N2)

Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.

Hydraulic system B.

Hydraulic system A.

Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?

System A for engine No 1 and system B for engine No 2

System B

Standby system

System A

When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?

When the other aircraft is approximately 1200 feet from the point of closest approach.

When the other aircraft is approximately 40 seconds from the point of closest approach.

When the other aircraft is approximately 25 seconds from the point of closest approach.

When the other aircraft is less than 6 nm from the point of closest approach.

With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?

The translating sleeve is hydraulically locked in the deployed position.

Thrust reverse levers must be cycled to reset the system.

The green REV indication on the aft overhead panel illuminates.

The isolation valve remains open and the control valve is held in the stow position.

After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?

135 seconds

30 seconds

60 seconds

120 seconds

What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?

2000

1500

500

800

How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?

Set the ALT-NORM Switch to ALT.

Push the VHF and NAV selector switches.

Set the MASK-BOOM Switch to BOOM.

Set the Filter Switch to B (Both).

If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?

No change in System B quantity

An overheat indication for System B

A decrease in System B quantity, but it would not drop to zero.

System B quantity would decrease to Zero.

Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?

N1 and ARM.

GA and ARM.

THR HLD Only.

THR HLD and ARM.

How can VNAV be terminated?

selecting LNAV.

LOC capture.

Selecting a different pitch mode

Selecting HDG SEL

In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?

In flight only.

Never.

On the ground only.

On the ground or in flight.

The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.

True

False

For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?

Mode A transponder.

Mode C or S transponder

TCAS system.

Navigation Radar.

What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?

The AC Standby Bus.

The Battery Bus.

The DC Standby Bus.

The Hot Battery Bus.

Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?

The handrail and lower ladder safety circuits are by-passed.

It is not possible to use the interior standby power switch.

This operation requires the L1 door to be in the fully open position.

This operation requires DC and AC power to be available.

When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?

The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 10,000 feet

The APU may be used to feed two air conditioning packs up to 41,000 feet

The APU may only be used as a bleed air source up to 10,000 feet

The APU may be used as an electrical and bleed air source simultaneously up to 17,000 feet