Welcome to your Technical Exam
During a single autopilot approach and landing, a single press of either TO/GA switch in response to a Go-around will result in which of the following situations?
Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle that is within what distance from the aircraft nose?
What is the effect of pulling up the No1 Fire DISCH switch?
Which statement is correct when retracting the airstairs using the STANDBY system on the Interior Panel?
What is the result of selecting the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM?
Which of the statements is true when checking the mach/airspeed warning system?
Where is the right IRS electrically powered from?
Which services does the STANDBY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM supply?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
The CFM56-7 is a twin spool engine. Which spool is connected to the accessory gearbox?
Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
Which system provides hydraulic pressure for normal Nose Wheel Steering?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
Which statement is correct when the ALT-NORM switch on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) is set to ALT?
What do you select to see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude?
When is the STANDBY HYDRAULIC LOW QUANTITY light armed?
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station? Select one:
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
When will the TR UNIT light illuminate in flight?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
During AUTO LAND at what radio altitude will the flare maneuver start and FLARE engaged is annunciated?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
How can VNAV be terminated?
Which statement is correct at that station, when the Captain's ACP operating in degraded mode?
Which statement is correct when selecting an arrival for either the origin or destination airport on the FMC DEP/ARR page?
Cabin pressurisation is controlled by the position of the Outflow Valve, but some air is also exhausted through the toilet and galley vents.
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
From where are the Predictive Windshear alerts triggered?
Which statement is correct when on the ground, with the BAT switch positioned to OFF and the STANDBY POWER Switch positioned to BAT?
What is the wingtip height of a blended winglets aircraft?
What causes the GRD POWER AVAILABLE light to illuminate?
Which statement is correct when the flight crew oxygen mask EMERGENCY/TEST Selector is rotated to the EMERGENCY position?
The packs produce the coolest temperature selected in any of the zones, with the other zones temperature controlled by adding hot trim air to produce the required temperature.
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
For RVSM operation, the maximum allowable altitude display difference for sea level, between the Captain and F/O's on the ground is?
With the STANDBY POWER Switch in the AUTO position, all engine or APU electrical power has been lost, which statement is correct for this condition?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the AUTOSLAT system?
Which of the following conditions would prevent the RTO mode from being armed prior to takeoff?
Where is the Engine Fuel Flow is measured?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
In what modes will a TCAS Traffic Alert message TRAFFIC (displayed Red for RA and Amber for TA) be displayed on the ND whenever a TA or RA is active (the EFIS control panel TFC switch does not have to be selected on)?
When will LNAV automatically disengage?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
How can the Fire Warning Bell be silenced?
Ryanair's B737-800 aircraft only have 1 cargo fire extinguisher bottle fitted.
What is the result when the engine start lever is placed to CUTOFF?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the Autoslats.
If you push both thrust levers fully forward whilst using a 22K Thrust is selected in the FMC, the engines will produce
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
The Engine Fire DISCH switches are mechanically locked in the Down position and can only be pulled Up when an Overheat or Fire is detected and the switch has illuminated.
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Why are mechanical gates installed at Flap 15 and Flap 1 on the flap selector unit?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
When is the "RF" Indication displayed to the right of hydraulic system quantity?
Under certain conditions the power transfer unit (PTU) will supply additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate specific equipment. On non-short field performance aircraft, the PTU operates automatically when which of the following conditions exist?
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
What does the FMC Advisory Message BUFFET ALERT indicate?
As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go-around on an aircraft with the TOGA to LNAV feature fitted, what are the correct FMA annunciations (Thrust Mode : Roll Mode : Pitch Mode)?
What does the FMC Alerting Message RESET MCP ALT mean?
Which of the following conditions must exist to arm the RTO mode prior to takeoff?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
What information is available with the IRS mode selector in ATT?
When is the standby hydraulic system automatically activated?
Which of the following command the Overwing Emergency Exits locks to operate?
The display selector on the IRS Display Unit (ISDU) is moved to position HDG/STS during alignment. What is displayed in the right hand side of the digital display on the IRS panel?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft batteries are the only source of power?
Which mode for the flight crew Oxygen Mask will deplete the oxygen supply at the highest rate?
Correct Marked out of 1.00 Not flaggedFlag question Question text Under what circumstances will the V Speeds be removed from the FMC, the No V Speeds Flag reappear on the PFD, and the Scratchpad message TAKEOFF SPEEDS DELETED appear?
What indicates that the flight crew oxygen bottle may have become overheated and discharged through the Thermal Discharge Port?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
Which statement is correct when the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight?
If the PSEU light illuminates on recall whilst performing the APPROACH checklist; what does this indicate?
What happens if you reject a takeoff after exceeding 100 knots with the AUTO BRAKES in RTO?
Which mode must be selected on the MCP before the second A/P can be selected to engage in CMD during a dual channel A/P approach?
Which of the following actions would cause a displayed ENG FAIL Alert to extinguish?
How many fire extinguisher bottles are fitted for the Cargo compartments?
What do dotted red areas on the terrain display indicate?
When will hydraulic pressure from System B be used to retract the landing gear?
The fire detectors located in the forward and aft cargo holds detect a fire by what means?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
What protection does the flap/slat electronics unit (FSEU) provide?
Which of the following actions occur when positioning the Engine Start Lever to CUTOFF?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
Which of the following statements is true, when the Thrust Reverser (REV) indication is displayed green?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
How much Control Wheel displacement will cause the Flight spoiler on the down going wing to begin deflection?
Which statement is correct in the event of an elevator control column jam, and the override mechanism has been operated?
The landing gear warning horn sounds and cannot be silenced with the landing gear warning HORN CUTOUT switch. What is the aircraft's condition (both engines are operating)?
The engines each have an overheat light and an illuminated fire switch. The APU has an illuminated fire switch but no overheat light. The cargo compartments and the main wheel well have only fire warning light(s).
Which of the following are powered by the Standby Hydraulic system?
How can the Fwd Airstair be extended from outside the aircraft?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
When operating on the Standby Pack Controls, what temperatures will the packs be producing?
Which statement is correct about the colour on the Terrain Display (with landing gear up)?
At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during a dual channel approach?
How does the Engine Vibration reading change in the event of a high vibration level?
In the unlikely situation of total generator failure at high altitude, thrust deterioration may occur. Why?
For RAs to be generated, the other airplane must have which equipment installed and working?
If all zone and primary pack controls fail, how is cabin temperatures controlled?
For landing, what is the maximum fuel imbalance allowed between the No.1 and No.2 main tanks?
Which of the following statements will cause the landing gear configuration warning horn to activate if a gear is not down and locked?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
In flight both centre tank fuel pumps selected OFF with more than 760 kg remaining in the centre tank, and both main tanks are full. What will be displayed on the Upper Display Unit?
When will the fuel LOW alert be displayed?
In normal operation, what provides the Autothrottle system with N1 limit values?
Which statement is correct for the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS Page 1?
What would you expect to see when the standby hydraulic system is automatically activated?
With the thrust reverser auto-restow circuit activated, which of the following statements is true?
With reference to the illumination of the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light, which statement is correct?
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
How do you set the Audio Control Panel to receive NAV and ADF voice and range audio?
In flight, when does the EEC automatically select Approach Idle?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Which statement is correct for a loss of hydraulic system B (system A operating normally), and no switches have been repositioned yet?
In normal operation, which hydraulic system powers the No 1 engine thrust reverser?
The TRIP RESET switch is pushed to reset a PACK, WING-BODY OVERHEAT and BLEED TRIP OFF, it isolates the associated valve and extinguishes the alert.
Which statement is correct:
In audio system operation in degraded mode, what are the combinations for transmission and reception at the degraded station?
If after moving the FAULT/INOP - OVHT/FIRE TEST switch to the OVHT/FIRE TEST position, one engine fire switch fails to illuminate. How would you determine which detector loop had failed?
Which statement is true when the landing gear Manual Extension Access Door is open?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
What airspeed must be considered when dealing with a wheel well fire situation?
What operates the spar fuel shutoff valve?
With regards to nose wheel steering, which of the following statements is true?
Which statement is true regarding aileron trim?
Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC's. How will the Autopilot System be affected if one Radio Altimeter becomes inoperative?
When will the amber LOW PRESSURE Lights for the Engine Driven Hydraulic Pumps (EDP) extinguish?
The differential pressure of the cabin is limited by a pressure relief system - which of the following statements is correct?
The Power Transfer Unit provides a backup source of hydraulic pressure to operate which items?
With the ENGINE START switch positioned OFF, when will automatic ignition occur?
Which statement is correct when selecting a landing autobrake setting after touchdown?
During VNAV PATH descent and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?
Engine bleed air pressure is controlled by means of the bleed air valve which acts as both a shutoff and pressure regulating valve.
Which of the following statements is correct during an autopilot ILS approach?
Which statement is correct if during RECALL on TAXI CHECKLIST, you push and release either system annunciator panel, the IRS light comes ON, and the GPS light is illuminated (amber) on the AFT OVERHEAD PANEL but extinguishes when Master Caution is reset?
When disarming the Autobrake System which of the following does NOT cause the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light to illuminate?
When does the underspeed limiting symbol (flashing "A") appear in the MCP IAS/Mach display?
Which of these pressures can be indicated by the Hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the cross bus tie relay operation?
Where is the flight crew oxygen system pressure displayed on the flight deck?
What is the minimum altitude (AGL) for selecting CMD on the second autopilot to execute a dual channel A/P approach?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
What is the minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature?
The HF Sensitivity Control is used for which purpose?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
Where are the Logo lights installed?
What is the result if the thrust lever(s) are advanced during the first 3 seconds after touchdown?
Which statement is correct if during VNAV operations the Fuel Quantity Indicating System fails?
What is indicated by the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) Offside Tuning light illuminating white?
Which statement is correct in relation to the amber fuel IMBAL alert?
If you attempt to start the APU and it will not start, what may be the cause?
Which bus is always connected to the main battery?
During an engine start, when an engine start lever is positioned to IDLE, which of the following statements is correct?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
With LNAV armed on the ground, at what altitude will it engage?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
What is the purpose of the Nose Wheel Steering Lockout Pin (Bypass Pin)?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
If a crossbleed start is recommended for inflight starting, what Indication displayed?
What does the lower DU show when the SYS switch is pushed on the Multifunction Display (MFD) on a Ryanair aircraft?
Which of the following statements is correct when the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) switch is set to AUTO
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?
During an impending hot start, the box around the EGT digital readout flashes white. When does this flashing white box reset?
Which A/T modes permit manual thrust changes without A/T interference?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
The loss of one DEU results in activation of both the EEC's in alternate mode. In this situation, which of the following statements is correct?
What is the speed range for fully enabled speed trim operation?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
Which statement is correct when the Audio System is operating in the degraded mode?
What may cause the EEC to enter Soft Alternate mode?
What happens to the IAS/MACH display on the MCP if the SPD INTV switch is pushed during VNAV operation?
How does the fluid pressure supplied by an engine driven hydraulic pump compare to an electric motor-driven hydraulic pump?
When will the FMC Alerting Message VERIFY GW AND FUEL be shown in the CDU scratchpad?
The PASS OXY ON Light illuminates, what does this indicate?
In which of the following situations does moving the battery switch to OFF immediately shut down the APU?
When performance is limited, such as with an inoperative engine, what should you do to prevent receiving RAs beyond the airplane's capabilities?
Elevator balance tabs position
What is the meaning of a 'down arrow' and '-07' alongside a TA symbol showing on the Navigation Display (ND)?
What will cause the FEEL DIFF PRESS light to illuminate?
When will you see the FMC Alerting Message 'VERIFY POSITION' ?
What inputs does the elevator feel computer need to decide how much simulated feel it needs to provide?
What is the result if one pack fails in-flight?
How can you determine if the toilet fire extinguisher has been discharged?
What protection is provided during alternate brake operation?
What is the minimum width of pavement for a 180 degree turn for a 737-800 with winglets?
What do the 3 green illuminated lights at the bottom right of the diagram indicate?
During charging of the battery, would the battery voltage be
Above what speed will the Mach Trim System operate?
What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?
Where is the GROUND SERVICE Switch located?
How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?
Which of the following annunciators are NOT fitted on the flight deck?
During a normal engine start, which of the following statements is true?
With the speed brake lever at ARMED, if a wheel spin-up signal is not detected on landing, will the flight spoilers deploy automatically?
In the event of a total loss of pressure in a Hydraulic System A, B and the Standby System in flight, will the brakes function on landing?
True or false - To extinguish an APU fire from outside of the flight deck, the APU fire control handle needs to be pulled down first before the fire bottle discharge switch is operated.
After lift-off the A/T remains in THR HLD until which altitude?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine start procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to IDLE detent?
Of the four lights located on the 737-800 APU control panel, which light will NOT cause an automatic shutdown of the APU when it illuminates?
How can the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) be erased?
What is the result if all temperature zone selectors are positioned to OFF?
On the FMC FIX INFO page what does the RAD/DIS FR indicate?
What is the result of a flight attendant station calling the flight deck?
With reference to the flight controls and manual reversion, which statement is correct?
Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?
Which statement is correct if an engine fails in flight?
After performing the FMC/CDU preflight, the flight crew notices that the ACTIVE navigation database has expired and must be changed. What will the RTE page look like after the navigation database change?
If the ON DC light on left IRS Mode Selector Unit illuminates it means the related IRS is operating on DC power. Which bus is supplying the power?
Which statement is true for the Autoslat system?
Once activated, approximately how long will a Passenger Service Unit (PSU) supply oxygen?
What pitch mode is annunciated in the FMA after takeoff when the autopilot is first engaged in CMD?
If the engine oil pressure is in the amber band at the selection of take-off thrust, which of the following is true?
Which of the following will cause activation of the takeoff configuration warning horn?
The engines and APU have fire extinguishing systems, but the cargo holds and wheel well have only suppression systems.
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
How many slats are located on each wing?
At which flap settings is the flap load relief system operational for Short Field Performance aircraft?
What would be the result of a fluid leak from the outlet side of the System A electric motor-driven pump?
What is the result of pushing the VHF TEST Switch on the radio tuning panel?
During PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION the IRS mode selector is accidentally moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?
What is the approximate engine starter cutout speed?
When operating with normal power sources available, what is the result of placing the BAT switch to OFF?
Which statement is correct for a landing made with RTO selected?
What happens if a persistent localizer/glideslope anomaly or ground station failure is detected during a single channel or F/D only approach?
Which statement is correct when the CROSSFEED selector is positioned OPEN and the crossfeed valve is closed?
What is the minimum fuel quantity limitation for ground operation of the electric motor-driven hydraulic pumps?
How long should a fast realignment take to complete?
What is the wingspan of a 737-800 with winglets?
Which radio is used on the ground, for primary ATC communication?
Which statement is correct when the aircraft is in flight, with 2500 kgs of fuel in main tank No.1 and 3060 kgs of fuel in main tank No.2 ?
When will the ELEC Light illuminate on the ground?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
When using the APU in flight, which of the following statements is true?
When does the center tank fuel scavenge jet pump operate?
After moving the APU switch to the OFF position, how long is the cooling period before the APU shuts down?
What will be the result on the APPROACH REF page if airplane gross weight is not available from the FMC?
How long can the cockpit voice recorder record audio?
Where do the SMYD computers receive inputs from to determine when a Stall Warning is required?
Which statement is correct:
When is a resolution advisory (RA) generated?
If there was a leak in the Standby Hydraulic system, what indication would you expect to see for Hydraulic System B?
After pressing the DISCH switch, how long does it take for the cargo fire DISCH light to illuminate to indicate that the Cargo Fire Suppression system has been fully activated?
Above what bank angle will the wings not roll level when control wheel pressure is released during CWS roll operation?
Which statement is correct when an active navigation database expires in flight?
After a normal takeoff with sufficient rate of climb achieved, which F/D pitch command can you expect?
What is the result of pushing the ATTEND call switch?
The Mach/airspeed warning system provides a distinct aural warning, what does the warning sound like?
What is the correct sequence regarding the SPAR VALVE CLOSED light during a normal engine shutdown procedure after the START LEVER is positioned to CUTOFF?
When is 'TA Only' mode enabled automatically?
In-flight, if the two fuel pump LOW PRESSURE Lights for main tank No.1 illuminate. What happens to the No.1 engine?
With the No 1 engine running, what is the effect of switching ENG 1 hydraulic pump OFF?
Which hydraulic system normally powers the thrust reversers?
If a wet start is detected, when will the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine?
Where are the wing-body overheat sensors located?
Bleed air is taken from stage 4 and stage 9 of the high pressure compressor.
